BITSAT 2017 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Sachin Gupta

Associate Content Manager | Updated on - Jan 3, 2026

BITSAT 2017 Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. BITSAT 2017 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2017 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2017 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

BITSAT 2017 Question Paper PDF BITSAT 2017 Answer Key PDF
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Question 1:

What is the minimum energy required to launch a satellite of mass \( m \) from the surface of a planet of mass \( M \) and radius \( R \) in a circular orbit at an altitude of \( R \)?

  • (A) \( \dfrac{5GmM}{6R} \)
  • (B) \( \dfrac{2GmM}{3R} \)
  • (C) \( \dfrac{GmM}{2R} \)
  • (D) \( \dfrac{3GmM}{4R} \)
Correct Answer: (4) \( \dfrac{3GmM}{4R} \)
View Solution

Step 1: Radius of the circular orbit \[ r = R + R = 2R \]

Step 2: Initial mechanical energy of the satellite at rest on the surface \[ E_i = -\frac{GMm}{R} \]

Step 3: Final mechanical energy of the satellite in a circular orbit \[ E_f = -\frac{GMm}{2r} = -\frac{GMm}{4R} \]

Step 4: Minimum energy required to launch the satellite \[ \Delta E = E_f - E_i = \left(-\frac{GMm}{4R}\right) - \left(-\frac{GMm}{R}\right) = \frac{3GMm}{4R} \] Quick Tip: For a satellite in circular orbit: \[ E = -\frac{GMm}{2r} \] Minimum launch energy is calculated using the change in total mechanical energy.


Question 2:

A mercury drop of radius 1 cm is sprayed into \(10^6\) drops of equal size. The energy pressed in joule is (surface tension of mercury is \(460 \times 10^{-3}\,N/m\)).

  • (A) \(0.057\)
  • (B) \(5.7\)
  • (C) \(5.7 \times 10^{-4}\)
  • (D) \(5.7 \times 10^{-6}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(5.7\)
View Solution

Step 1: Surface energy \(E = T \times \Delta A\)

Initial radius \(R = 1\,cm = 10^{-2}\,m\)

Step 2: Radius of each small drop \[ r = \frac{R}{100} = 10^{-4}\,m \]

Step 3: Increase in surface area \[ \Delta A = 10^6 (4\pi r^2) - 4\pi R^2 = 4\pi (10^6 \times 10^{-8} - 10^{-4}) = 4\pi (0.01 - 0.0001) \]

Step 4: Energy required \[ E = 460 \times 10^{-3} \times 4\pi \times 0.0099 \approx 5.7\,J \] Quick Tip: Surface energy change depends only on change in surface area: \[ E = T \Delta A \] Breaking droplets increases surface area significantly.


Question 3:

Two plano-concave lenses (1 and 2) of glass of refractive index 1.5 have radii of curvature 25 cm and 20 cm. They are placed in contact with their curved surfaces towards each other and the space between them is filled with liquid of refractive index \(4/3\). The combination is

  • (A) convex lens of focal length 70 cm
  • (B) concave lens of focal length 70 cm
  • (C) concave lens of focal length 66.6 cm
  • (D) convex lens of focal length 66.6 cm
Correct Answer: (C) concave lens of focal length 66.6 cm
View Solution

Step 1: Power of each curved surface using refraction formula

Net power: \[ P = \left(\frac{\mu_l}{\mu_g}-1\right)\left(\frac{1}{R_1}-\frac{1}{R_2}\right) \]

Step 2: Substituting values gives \[ P = -\frac{1}{66.6}\,cm^{-1} \] Quick Tip: For lenses in contact with a medium: \[ P_{net} = \sum P_{surfaces} \] Always consider refractive index of the filling medium.


Question 4:

A charged particle moves perpendicular to a magnetic field. Then

  • (A) kinetic energy changes but the momentum is constant
  • (B) the momentum changes but the kinetic energy is constant
  • (C) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are not constant
  • (D) both momentum and kinetic energy of the particle are constant
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Magnetic force is always perpendicular to velocity.

Step 2: Work done by magnetic force is zero.

Step 3: Hence speed and kinetic energy remain constant, but direction of momentum changes. Quick Tip: Magnetic force changes direction, not speed: \[ \vec{F} = q\vec{v} \times \vec{B} \]


Question 5:

After two hours, one-sixteenth of the starting amount of a certain radioactive isotope is remained undecayed. The half-life of the isotope is

  • (A) 15 minutes
  • (B) 30 minutes
  • (C) 45 minutes
  • (D) 4 hours
Correct Answer: (B) 30 minutes
View Solution

Step 1: \(\frac{1}{16} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^4\)

Step 2: Four half-lives occur in 2 hours.

Step 3: \[ T_{1/2} = \frac{120}{4} = 30 minutes \] Quick Tip: Fraction remaining: \[ \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^n \] where \(n\) = number of half-lives.


Question 6:

A coil of inductance 300 mH and resistance \(2\Omega\) is connected to a source of voltage 2 V. The current reaches half of its steady state value in

  • (A) 0.1 s
  • (B) 0.05 s
  • (C) 0.3 s
  • (D) 0.15 s
Correct Answer: (B) 0.05 s
View Solution

Step 1: Time constant \[ \tau = \frac{L}{R} = \frac{0.3}{2} = 0.15\,s \]

Step 2: \[ \frac{I}{I_0} = 1 - e^{-t/\tau} \]

Step 3: For \(I = \frac{I_0}{2}\): \[ t = \tau \ln 2 \approx 0.05\,s \] Quick Tip: RL circuit current growth: \[ I = I_0(1-e^{-t/\tau}) \]


Question 7:

Two concentric conducting spherical shells \(A\) and \(B\) having radii \(r_A\) and \(r_B\) \((r_B>r_A)\) are charged to \(+2q\) and \(-q\) respectively. The electric field along a line passing through the centre is

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Use Gauss’s law for different regions.

Step 2:
- Inside shell A: \(E=0\)
- Between A and B: field due to \(+2q\)
- Outside both shells: net charge \(= +q\) Quick Tip: For concentric shells, analyze region-wise using Gauss’s law.


Question 8:

A capillary tube of radius \(R\) is immersed in water and water rises in it to a height \(H\). Mass of water in the capillary tube is \(M\). If the radius of the tube is doubled, mass of water that will rise in the capillary tube will now be

  • (A) \(M\)
  • (B) \(2M\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{M}{2}\)
  • (D) \(4M\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(M\)
View Solution

Step 1: Height of capillary rise \[ h \propto \frac{1}{R} \]

Step 2: Volume (and hence mass) \[ M \propto R^2 h \propto R^2 \cdot \frac{1}{R} = R \]

Step 3: When radius is doubled, height becomes half, so mass remains unchanged. Quick Tip: In capillary rise: \[ M \propto R \] Doubling radius halves height but increases area.


Question 9:

A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five antinodes between the two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is replaced by a mass \(M\), the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for the same position of the bridges. The value of \(M\) is

  • (A) 25 kg
  • (B) 5 kg
  • (C) 12.5 kg
  • (D) 1.25 kg
Correct Answer: (B) 5 kg
View Solution

Step 1: Frequency relation for sonometer \[ f \propto \frac{n}{\sqrt{T}} \]

Step 2: For same tuning fork \[ \frac{n_1}{\sqrt{T_1}} = \frac{n_2}{\sqrt{T_2}} \]

Step 3: Substituting values \[ \frac{5}{\sqrt{9}} = \frac{3}{\sqrt{M}} \Rightarrow M = 5 kg \] Quick Tip: For sonometer wire: \[ f \propto \frac{n}{\sqrt{T}} \] Number of loops is directly proportional to frequency.


Question 10:

When a metal surface is illuminated by light of wavelength 400 nm and 250 nm, the maximum velocities of the photoelectrons ejected are \(v\) and \(2v\) respectively. The work function of the metal is (h = Planck’s constant, c = velocity of light in air)

  • (A) \(2hc \times 10^6\ J\)
  • (B) \(1.5hc \times 10^6\ J\)
  • (C) \(hc \times 10^6\ J\)
  • (D) \(0.5hc \times 10^6\ J\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(hc \times 10^6\ \text{J}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Einstein’s photoelectric equation \[ \frac{hc}{\lambda} = \phi + \frac{1}{2}mv^2 \]

Step 2: For given data, solving simultaneous equations gives \[ \phi = hc \times 10^6\ J \] Quick Tip: Higher frequency light increases kinetic energy, not work function.


Question 11:

Two conducting shells of radius \(a\) and \(b\) are connected by a conducting wire as shown in the figure. The capacity of the system is

  • (A) \(4\pi\varepsilon_0 \dfrac{ab}{b-a}\)
  • (B) \(4\pi\varepsilon_0 (a+b)\)
  • (C) zero
  • (D) infinite
Correct Answer: (B) \(4\pi\varepsilon_0 (a+b)\)
View Solution

Step 1: When connected by wire, both shells are at same potential.

Step 2: Equivalent capacitance is sum of individual capacitances.
\[ C = 4\pi\varepsilon_0 a + 4\pi\varepsilon_0 b \] Quick Tip: Capacitances add directly when conductors are at same potential.


Question 12:

When \(^{235}\mathrm{U}\) undergoes fission, 0.1% of its original mass is changed into energy. How much energy is released if 1 kg of \(^{235}\mathrm{U}\) undergoes fission

  • (A) \(9 \times 10^{10}\ J\)
  • (B) \(9 \times 10^{11}\ J\)
  • (C) \(9 \times 10^{12}\ J\)
  • (D) \(9 \times 10^{13}\ J\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(9 \times 10^{13}\ \text{J}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Mass converted \[ \Delta m = 0.1% \times 1 = 10^{-3}\ kg \]

Step 2: Energy released \[ E = \Delta m c^2 = 10^{-3} \times (3 \times 10^8)^2 = 9 \times 10^{13}\ J \] Quick Tip: Even tiny mass loss produces huge energy: \[ E = mc^2 \]


Question 13:

One mole of an ideal gas is taken from state A to state B by three different processes, (i) ACB (ii) ADB (iii) AEB as shown in the P–V diagram. The heat absorbed by the gas is

  • (A) greater in process (ii) than in (i)
  • (B) the least in process (ii)
  • (C) the same in (i) and (iii)
  • (D) less in (iii) than in (ii)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Change in internal energy depends only on initial and final states, hence same for all paths.

Step 2: Heat absorbed \[ Q = \Delta U + W \]

Step 3: Work done is area under P–V curve. Path ADB encloses maximum area.

Step 4: Hence heat absorbed is maximum in process (ii). Quick Tip: In P–V diagrams, larger enclosed area means more work done.


Question 14:

In the formula \(X = 3YZ^2\), \(X\) has dimensions of capacitance and magnetic induction respectively. The dimensional formula of \(Y\) in MKSA system is

  • (A) \([M^{-3}L^{-2}T^{-2}A^{-4}]\)
  • (B) \([ML^{-2}]\)
  • (C) \([M^{-3}L^{-2}A^{-4}]\)
  • (D) \([M^{-3}L^{-2}AT^{4}]\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Dimensional formula
Capacitance: \[ [C] = [M^{-1}L^{-2}T^{4}A^{2}] \]

Magnetic induction: \[ [B] = [MT^{-2}A^{-1}] \]

Step 2: From \(X = 3YZ^2\) \[ [Y] = \frac{[X]}{[Z]^2} \]

Step 3: Substituting dimensions gives option (A). Quick Tip: Always convert each physical quantity into base dimensions first.


Question 15:

Two long, straight, parallel wires carry steady currents \(I\) and \(-I\) respectively. The distance between the wires is \(d\). At a certain instant of time, a point charge \(q\) is at a point equidistant from the two wires. The instantaneous velocity \(v\) is perpendicular to this plane. The magnitude of the force due to the magnetic field acting on the charge is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{\mu_0 I q v}{2\pi d}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\mu_0 I q v}{\pi d}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2\mu_0 I q v}{\pi d}\)
  • (D) 0
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Magnetic fields due to the two wires at the midpoint are equal in magnitude.

Step 2: Directions of magnetic fields are opposite.

Step 3: Net magnetic field at the point is zero.

Step 4: Hence magnetic force \(F = qvB = 0\). Quick Tip: Equal and opposite magnetic fields cancel at symmetric points.


Question 16:

Two projectiles A and B are thrown with speeds in the ratio \(1:\sqrt{2}\) and acquire the same heights. If A is thrown at an angle of \(45^\circ\) with the horizontal, the angle of projection of B will be

  • (A) \(0^\circ\)
  • (B) \(60^\circ\)
  • (C) \(30^\circ\)
  • (D) \(45^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(30^\circ\)
View Solution

Step 1: Maximum height \[ H = \frac{u^2 \sin^2\theta}{2g} \]

Step 2: Since heights are equal \[ u_1^2 \sin^2 45^\circ = u_2^2 \sin^2 \theta \]

Step 3: Given \(u_1 : u_2 = 1 : \sqrt{2}\)

Step 4: Solving gives \[ \theta = 30^\circ \] Quick Tip: Equal heights depend only on vertical component of velocity.


Question 17:

A meter bridge is set up as shown to determine an unknown resistance \(X\) using a standard 10 ohm resistor. The galvanometer shows null point at 52 cm mark. The end corrections are 1 cm and 2 cm respectively for the ends A and B. The determined value of \(X\) is

  • (A) 10.2 ohm
  • (B) 10.6 ohm
  • (C) 10.8 ohm
  • (D) 11.1 ohm
Correct Answer: (B) 10.6 ohm
View Solution

Step 1: Corrected lengths \[ l_1 = 52 - 1 = 51\ cm, \quad l_2 = 48 - 2 = 46\ cm \]

Step 2: Meter bridge formula \[ \frac{X}{10} = \frac{l_1}{l_2} \]

Step 3: Substituting values \[ X = 10 \times \frac{51}{48} \approx 10.6\ \Omega \] Quick Tip: Always apply end corrections before using meter bridge formula.


Question 18:

A disk of radius \(a/4\) having a uniformly distributed charge \(6\,C\) is placed in the \(x-y\) plane with its centre at \((-a/2,0,0)\). A rod of length \(a\) carrying a uniformly distributed charge \(8\,C\) is placed on the \(x\)-axis from \(x=a/4\) to \(x=5a/4\). Two point charges \(-7\,C\) and \(3\,C\) are placed at \((a/4,-a/4,0)\) and \((-3a/4,3a/4,0)\) respectively. Consider a cubical surface formed by six surfaces \(x=\pm a/2,\ y=\pm a/2,\ z=\pm a/2\). The electric flux through this cubical surface is

  • (A) \(-\dfrac{2C}{\varepsilon_0}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2C}{\varepsilon_0}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{10C}{\varepsilon_0}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{12C}{\varepsilon_0}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(-\dfrac{2C}{\varepsilon_0}\)
View Solution

Step 1: By Gauss’s law, \[ \Phi = \frac{Q_{enclosed}}{\varepsilon_0} \]

Step 2: Disk is cut into two equal halves by the face \(x=-a/2\).
Enclosed disk charge \(= \frac{1}{2}\times 6C = 3C\).

Step 3: Only length \(a/4\) of the rod lies inside the cube. \[ Q_{rod} = 8C \times \frac{1}{4} = 2C \]

Step 4: Of the point charges, only \(-7C\) lies inside the cube.

Step 5: Net enclosed charge \[ Q = 3C + 2C - 7C = -2C \] Quick Tip: Electric flux through a closed surface depends only on the total enclosed charge, not on its distribution.


Question 19:

A particle of mass \(m\) moving in the \(x\)-direction with speed \(2v\) is hit by another particle of mass \(2m\) moving in the same direction with speed \(v\). If the collision is perfectly inelastic, the percentage loss in the energy during the collision is close to

  • (A) 56%
  • (B) 62%
  • (C) 44%
  • (D) 50%
Correct Answer: (D) 50%
View Solution

Step 1: Initial kinetic energy \[ K_i = \tfrac12 m(2v)^2 + \tfrac12 (2m)v^2 = 3mv^2 \]

Step 2: Final velocity after perfectly inelastic collision \[ v_f = \frac{2mv + 2mv}{3m} = \frac{4v}{3} \]

Step 3: Final kinetic energy \[ K_f = \tfrac12 (3m)\left(\frac{4v}{3}\right)^2 = \frac{8}{3}mv^2 \]

Step 4: Fractional loss \[ \frac{K_i-K_f}{K_i} \approx 0.5 \] Quick Tip: In perfectly inelastic collisions, momentum is conserved but kinetic energy is not.


Question 20:

A coil is suspended in a uniform magnetic field with the plane of the coil parallel to the magnetic lines of force. When a current is passed through the coil it starts oscillating; it is very difficult to stop. But if an aluminium plate is placed near the coil, it stops. This is due to

  • (A) induced emf in the coil
  • (B) induction of electrical charge on the plate
  • (C) shielding of magnetic lines of force as aluminium is paramagnetic
  • (D) electromagnetic induction in the aluminium plate giving rise to electromagnetic damping
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Motion of the coil changes magnetic flux through the aluminium plate.

Step 2: Eddy currents are induced in the plate.

Step 3: These currents oppose the motion (Lenz’s law), causing damping. Quick Tip: Eddy currents always oppose the cause producing them, leading to electromagnetic damping.


Question 21:

A steel wire of length \(L\) at \(40^\circC\) is suspended from the ceiling and carries a mass \(m\) from its free end. The wire is cooled from \(40^\circC\) to \(30^\circC\) to regain its original length \(L\). The coefficient of linear expansion is \(10^{-5}\,/^\circC\), Young’s modulus of steel is \(10^{11}\,N m^{-2}\) and the radius of the wire is \(1\,mm\). The value of \(m\) in kg is nearly

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

Step 1: Thermal strain \[ \epsilon = \alpha \Delta T = 10^{-5}\times 10 \]

Step 2: Stress \[ \sigma = Y\epsilon = 10^{11}\times 10^{-4} = 10^7\ N m^{-2} \]

Step 3: Force \[ F = \sigma A = 10^7 \times \pi(10^{-3})^2 \approx 31\ N \]

Step 4: \(m = F/g \approx 3\,kg\) Quick Tip: Prevented thermal expansion produces stress: \(\sigma = Y\alpha\Delta T\).


Question 22:

On a hypotenuse of a right angled prism of liquid is placed as shown in the figure. Light is allowed to fall normally on the short face of the prism. In order that the ray of light may be totally reflected, the maximum value of refractive index is

  • (A) 1.30
  • (B) 1.47
  • (C) 1.20
  • (D) 1.25
Correct Answer: (B) 1.47
View Solution

Step 1: For total internal reflection, \[ \sin c = \frac{1}{\mu} \]

Step 2: From prism geometry, the angle of incidence at the hypotenuse is fixed.

Step 3: Maximum \(\mu\) corresponds to the critical condition. Quick Tip: Total internal reflection occurs only when light travels from denser to rarer medium.


Question 23:

A tuning fork of frequency 392 Hz resonates with 50 cm length of a string under tension \(T\). If the mass of the string is decreased by 2%, keeping the tension constant, the number of beats heard when the string and the tuning fork are made to vibrate simultaneously is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 12
Correct Answer: (A) 4
View Solution

Step 1: Frequency of string \[ f \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{\mu}} \]

Step 2: Decrease in mass density by 2% increases frequency by approximately 1%.

Step 3: New frequency of string \[ f' \approx 392 \times 1.01 \approx 396 Hz \]

Step 4: Number of beats \[ |f' - f| \approx 4 \] Quick Tip: For small changes: \[ \frac{\Delta f}{f} \approx -\frac{1}{2}\frac{\Delta \mu}{\mu} \]


Question 24:

Hydrogen (H), deuterium (D), singly ionized helium (\(He^+\)) and doubly ionized lithium (\(Li^{2+}\)) all have one electron around the nucleus. Consider \(n=2\) to \(n=1\) transition. The wavelengths of emitted radiations are \(\lambda_1, \lambda_2, \lambda_3\) and \(\lambda_4\) respectively. Then approximately

  • (A) \(\lambda_1=\lambda_2=4\lambda_3=9\lambda_4\)
  • (B) \(4\lambda_1=2\lambda_2=2\lambda_3=\lambda_4\)
  • (C) \(\lambda_1=2\lambda_2=2\lambda_3=3/2\,\lambda_4\)
  • (D) \(\lambda_1=\lambda_2=2\lambda_3=3\sqrt{2}\lambda_4\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: For hydrogen-like atoms \[ \lambda \propto \frac{1}{Z^2} \]

Step 2: Atomic numbers
H, D: \(Z=1\); \(He^+\): \(Z=2\); \(Li^{2+}\): \(Z=3\)

Step 3: Hence \[ \lambda_1=\lambda_2=\frac{1}{1^2},\quad \lambda_3=\frac{1}{4},\quad \lambda_4=\frac{1}{9} \] Quick Tip: For hydrogen-like species, wavelength varies inversely as \(Z^2\).


Question 25:

The following figure depicts a circular motion. The radius of the circle, the period of revolution, the initial position and the sense of revolution are indicated in the figure. The simple harmonic motion of the \(x\)-projection of the radius vector of the rotating particle \(P\) can be shown as

  • (A) \(x(t)=a\cos\!\left(\dfrac{2\pi t}{4}+\dfrac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
  • (B) \(x(t)=a\cos\!\left(\dfrac{\pi t}{4}+\dfrac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
  • (C) \(x(t)=a\sin\!\left(\dfrac{2\pi t}{4}+\dfrac{\pi}{4}\right)\)
  • (D) \(x(t)=a\cos\!\left(\dfrac{\pi t}{3}+\dfrac{\pi}{2}\right)\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Angular frequency \[ \omega=\frac{2\pi}{T}=\frac{2\pi}{4}=\frac{\pi}{2} \]

Step 2: Initial phase from figure \[ \phi=\frac{\pi}{4} \]

Step 3: Equation of SHM \[ x(t)=a\cos(\omega t+\phi) \] Quick Tip: Projection of uniform circular motion on a diameter is SHM.


Question 26:

There are two sources kept at distances \(2\lambda\). A large screen is perpendicular to the line joining the sources. Number of maxima on the screen in this case is (\(\lambda=\) wavelength of light)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 7
Correct Answer: (C) 5
View Solution

Step 1: Maximum path difference \[ \Delta = d\sin\theta \le d = 2\lambda \]

Step 2: Condition for maxima \[ \Delta = m\lambda \Rightarrow m_{\max}=2 \]

Step 3: Total number of maxima \[ N=2m_{\max}+1=5 \] Quick Tip: Total interference maxima: \[ N=2m_{\max}+1 \]


Question 27:

In the circuit shown in the figure the current through the resistor is

  • (A) the \(3\,\Omega\) resistor is \(0.50\,A\)
  • (B) the \(3\,\Omega\) resistor is \(0.25\,A\)
  • (C) the \(4\,\Omega\) resistor is \(0.50\,A\)
  • (D) the \(4\,\Omega\) resistor is \(0.25\,A\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Reduce the circuit using symmetry and series–parallel combinations.

Step 2: Find the equivalent resistance of each section and the total current drawn from the battery.

Step 3: Apply current division to the branch containing the \(3\,\Omega\) resistor.

Step 4: The current through the \(3\,\Omega\) resistor comes out to be \(0.25\,A\). Quick Tip: Use symmetry and current division to simplify ladder-type resistor networks.


Question 28:

A telescope has an objective lens of 10 cm diameter and is situated at a distance of one kilometer from two objects. The minimum distance between these two objects which can be resolved by the telescope, when the wavelength of light is \(5000\,\AA\), is of the order of

  • (A) 5 cm
  • (B) 0.5 m
  • (C) 5 mm
  • (D) 5 m
Correct Answer: (C) 5 mm
View Solution

Step 1: Resolving power of telescope \[ \theta_{\min} = 1.22\frac{\lambda}{D} \]

Step 2: Substituting values \[ \theta_{\min} \approx 1.22 \times \frac{5\times10^{-7}}{0.1} \approx 6\times10^{-6}\,rad \]

Step 3: Linear separation \[ x = L\theta = 1000 \times 6\times10^{-6} \approx 6\times10^{-3}\,m \approx 5\,mm \] Quick Tip: Smaller wavelength and larger aperture improve resolving power.


Question 29:

During vaporisation:
I. change of state from liquid to vapour state occurs.
II. temperature remains constant.
III. both liquid and vapour states coexist in equilibrium.
IV. specific heat of substance increases.
Correct statements are

  • (A) I, II and IV
  • (B) I, III and IV
  • (C) II, III and IV
  • (D) I, II and III
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: During vaporisation, liquid changes into vapour at constant temperature.

Step 2: Both phases coexist in equilibrium during the phase change.

Step 3: Specific heat is not defined during phase change, so statement IV is incorrect. Quick Tip: During phase change, supplied heat changes phase, not temperature.


Question 30:

A wire is connected to a battery between the points \(M\) and \(N\) as shown in figure (1). The same wire is bent in the form of a square and then connected to the battery between the points \(M\) and \(N\) as shown in figure (2). Which of the following quantities increases?

  • (A) Heat produced in the wire and resistance offered by the wire
  • (B) Resistance offered by the wire and current through the wire
  • (C) Heat produced in the wire, resistance offered by the wire and current through the wire
  • (D) Heat produced in the wire and current through the wire
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Bending the wire increases its effective resistance due to additional bends and redistribution of current paths.

Step 2: With increased resistance, more electrical energy is dissipated as heat in the wire.

Step 3: Hence both resistance and heat produced increase. Quick Tip: Resistance depends on the effective conducting path taken by the current.


Question 31:

A body moves in a circular orbit of radius \(R\) under the action of a central force. Potential due to the central force is given by \(V(r)=kr\) (where \(k\) is a positive constant). Period of revolution of the body is proportional to

  • (A) \(R^{1/2}\)
  • (B) \(R^{-1/2}\)
  • (C) \(R^{-3/2}\)
  • (D) \(R^{-5/2}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(R^{1/2}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Force due to potential \[ F = -\frac{dV}{dr} = -k \]

Step 2: For circular motion \[ \frac{mv^2}{R} = k \Rightarrow v \propto \sqrt{R} \]

Step 3: Period \[ T=\frac{2\pi R}{v} \propto \frac{R}{\sqrt{R}} = R^{1/2} \] Quick Tip: For circular motion, always relate force to \(mv^2/R\) first.


Question 32:

Two equal heavy spheres, each of radius \(r\), are in equilibrium within a smooth cup of radius \(3r\). The ratio of reaction between the cup and one sphere and that between the two spheres is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

Step 1: The centres of the spheres form an equilateral triangle with the centre of the cup.

Step 2: Angle between reaction forces is \(60^\circ\).

Step 3: Resolving forces for equilibrium gives \[ \frac{R_{cup}}{R_{sphere}} = 3 \] Quick Tip: In symmetric contact problems, geometry decides force ratios.


Question 33:

A long, hollow conducting cylinder is kept coaxially inside another long, hollow conducting cylinder of larger radius. Both the cylinders are initially electrically neutral.

  • (A) a potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the inner cylinder.
  • (B) a potential difference appears between the two cylinders when a charge density is given to the outer cylinder.
  • (C) no potential difference appears when a uniform line charge is kept along the axis of the cylinders.
  • (D) no potential difference appears when same charge density is given to both the cylinders.
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: If charge is given to the inner cylinder, electric field exists in the region between the cylinders.

Step 2: This produces a potential difference between the two cylinders.

Step 3: Charging only the outer cylinder does not create an electric field inside it. Quick Tip: For conductors, electric field inside the material is always zero.


Question 34:

A thin but rigid semicircular wire frame of radius \(r\) is hinged at \(O\) and can rotate in its own vertical plane. A smooth peg \(P\) starts from \(O\) and moves horizontally with constant speed \(v_0\), lifting the frame upwards as shown in the figure. Find the angular velocity \(\omega\) of the frame when its diameter makes an angle of \(60^\circ\) with the vertical.

  • (A) \(\dfrac{v_0}{r}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{v_0}{2r}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2v_0}{r}\)
  • (D) \(v_0 r\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\dfrac{v_0}{r}\)
View Solution

Step 1: The peg constrains the end of the diameter to move horizontally with speed \(v_0\).

Step 2: Linear speed of that point is related to angular speed: \[ v = \omega r \]

Step 3: Hence \[ \omega = \frac{v_0}{r} \] Quick Tip: For rigid rotation, relate angular speed using \(v=\omega r\).


Question 35:

Given that \( \vec A + \vec B = \vec R \) and \( A = B = R \). What should be the angle between \( \vec A \) and \( \vec B \)?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) \(\pi/3\)
  • (C) \(2\pi/3\)
  • (D) \(\pi\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\pi/3\)
View Solution

Step 1: Using vector formula \[ R^2 = A^2 + B^2 + 2AB\cos\theta \]

Step 2: Given \(A=B=R\) \[ R^2 = R^2 + R^2 + 2R^2\cos\theta \]

Step 3: \[ 1 = 2(1+\cos\theta) \Rightarrow \cos\theta=\frac12 \Rightarrow \theta=\frac{\pi}{3} \] Quick Tip: For equal vectors, geometry simplifies vector addition greatly.


Question 36:

The basic magnetization curve for a ferromagnetic material is shown in figure. Then, the value of relative permeability is highest for the point

  • (A) P
  • (B) Q
  • (C) R
  • (D) S
Correct Answer: (B) Q
View Solution

Step 1: Relative permeability \[ \mu_r = \frac{dB}{dH} \]

Step 2: It is maximum where slope of B–H curve is maximum.

Step 3: From the graph, slope is maximum at point Q. Quick Tip: Slope of B–H curve represents magnetic permeability.


Question 37:

Five gas molecules chosen at random are found to have speeds of 500, 600, 700, 800 and 900 m/s.

  • (A) The root mean square speed and the average speed are the same.
  • (B) The root mean square speed is 14 m/s higher than the average speed.
  • (C) The root mean square speed is 14 m/s lower than the average speed.
  • (D) The root mean square speed is \(\sqrt{14}\) m/s higher than the average speed.
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Average speed \[ v_{avg}=\frac{500+600+700+800+900}{5}=700\,m/s \]

Step 2: RMS speed \[ v_{rms}=\sqrt{\frac{500^2+600^2+700^2+800^2+900^2}{5}} =714\,m/s \]

Step 3: Difference \(=14\,m/s\) Quick Tip: RMS speed is always greater than average speed.


Question 38:

What is equivalent capacitance of the circuit between points A and B?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{2}{3}\,\muF\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{4}{3}\,\muF\)
  • (C) Infinite
  • (D) \((1+\sqrt{3})\,\muF\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(\dfrac{4}{3}\,\mu\text{F}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Each vertical column acts as parallel combination.

Step 2: The infinite ladder reduces to a finite equivalent by symmetry.

Step 3: Solving recursively gives \[ C_{eq}=\frac{4}{3}\,\muF \] Quick Tip: Infinite capacitor ladders can be solved using self-consistency.


Question 39:

A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the P–V diagram. Which of the following curves represent the same process?



  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: In a cyclic process, state variables return to initial values.

Step 2: Direction of arrows must be same in both diagrams.

Step 3: Option (D) correctly represents the same cycle. Quick Tip: Cyclic processes must preserve direction and sequence of states.


Question 40:

In the circuit shown below, \(V(t)\) is the sinusoidal voltage source, the voltage drop \(V_{AB}(t)\) across the resistance \(R\) is

  • (A) is half wave rectified
  • (B) is full wave rectified
  • (C) has the same peak value in the positive and negative half cycle
  • (D) has different peak values during positive and negative half cycle
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: During positive half cycle, one diode conducts.

Step 2: During negative half cycle, the other diode conducts through a different resistance path.

Step 3: Hence output waveform has unequal peak values. Quick Tip: Asymmetric diode-resistor paths produce unequal output peaks.


Question 41:

Which of the following can be repeatedly softened on heating?
(i) Polystyrene \quad (ii) Melamine
(iii) Polyesters \quad (iv) Polyethylene \quad (v) Neoprene

  • (A) (i) and (iii)
  • (B) (i) and (iv)
  • (C) (iii), (iv) and (v)
  • (D) (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (B) (i) and (iv)
View Solution

Step 1: Thermoplastics soften repeatedly on heating.

Step 2: Polystyrene and polyethylene are thermoplastics.

Step 3: Melamine, polyesters and neoprene are thermosetting or elastomers. Quick Tip: Thermoplastics can be reshaped repeatedly, thermosetting plastics cannot.


Question 42:

Which one of the following complexes is an outer orbital complex?

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (B) \([Mn(CN)_6]^{4-}\)
  • (C) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{4-}\)
  • (D) \([Ni(NH_3)_6]^{2+}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Outer orbital complexes use \(sp^3d^2\) hybridisation.

Step 2: Weak field ligands like \(NH_3\) do not cause pairing.

Step 3: \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\) forms an outer orbital complex. Quick Tip: Weak ligands usually form outer orbital complexes.


Question 43:

For the reaction \[ H_2(g) + Br_2(g) \rightarrow 2HBr(g), \]
the experimental data suggest the rate law \[ Rate = k[H_2][Br_2]^{1/2}. \]
The molecularity and order of the reaction are respectively

  • (A) 2, \(\dfrac{3}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{3}{2}, 2\)
  • (C) 1, 1
  • (D) 1, \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Molecularity is number of reacting molecules in the equation = 2.

Step 2: Order of reaction \[ = 1 + \frac{1}{2} = \frac{3}{2} \] Quick Tip: Order comes from rate law, molecularity from reaction equation.


Question 44:

Plaster of Paris is

  • (A) \(CaSO_4\cdot2H_2O\)
  • (B) \(MgSO_4\cdot7H_2O\)
  • (C) \(CaSO_4\cdot\frac{1}{2}H_2O\)
  • (D) \(CaSO_4\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Plaster of Paris is calcium sulphate hemihydrate.

Step 2: Chemical formula is \[ CaSO_4\cdot\frac{1}{2}H_2O \] Quick Tip: Plaster of Paris is obtained by partial dehydration of gypsum.


Question 45:

Stronger is oxidising agent, more is

  • (A) standard reduction potential of that species
  • (B) tendency to get itself oxidised
  • (C) the tendency to lose electrons by that species
  • (D) standard oxidation potential of that species
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Oxidising agent gains electrons.

Step 2: Greater tendency to gain electrons means higher reduction potential.

Step 3: Hence stronger oxidising agent has higher standard reduction potential. Quick Tip: Higher reduction potential ⇒ stronger oxidising agent.


Question 46:

Which of the following relation represents correct relation between standard electrode potential and equilibrium constant?

I.\quad \( \log K = \dfrac{nF E^\circ}{2.303\,RT} \)

II.\quad \( K = e^{\frac{nF E^\circ}{RT}} \)

III.\quad \( \log K = -\dfrac{nF E^\circ}{2.303\,RT} \)

IV.\quad \( \log K = 0.4342\,\dfrac{nF E^\circ}{RT} \)

Choose the correct statements.

  • (A) I, II and III are correct
  • (B) II and III are correct
  • (C) I, II and IV are correct
  • (D) I and IV are correct
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Relation between equilibrium constant and standard emf: \[ \Delta G^\circ = -nFE^\circ = -RT\ln K \]

Step 2: \[ \ln K = \frac{nF E^\circ}{RT} \]

Step 3: \[ \log K = \frac{nF E^\circ}{2.303\,RT} = 0.4342\,\frac{nF E^\circ}{RT} \]

Thus statements I and IV are correct. Quick Tip: Use \( \ln K = \dfrac{nFE^\circ}{RT} \) and convert to base-10 carefully.


Question 47:

Which of the following shows nitrogen with its increasing order of oxidation number?

  • (A) NO \(<\) N\(_2\)O \(<\) NO\(_2\) \(<\) NO\(_3^-\) \(<\) NH\(_4^+\)
  • (B) NH\(_4^+\) \(<\) N\(_2\)O \(<\) NO \(<\) NO\(_2^-\) \(<\) NO
  • (C) NH\(_4^+\) \(<\) N\(_2\)O \(<\) NO \(<\) NO\(_2\) \(<\) NO\(_3^-\)
  • (D) NH\(_4^+\) \(<\) NO \(<\) N\(_2\)O \(<\) NO\(_2\) \(<\) NO\(_3^-\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Oxidation numbers of nitrogen: \[ NH_4^+(-3),\quad N_2O(+1),\quad NO(+2),\quad NO_2(+4),\quad NO_3^- (+5) \]

Thus increasing order is option (C). Quick Tip: Always calculate oxidation number explicitly for polyatomic species.


Question 48:

Raoult’s law becomes a special case of Henry’s law when

  • (A) \(K_H = p_1^\circ\)
  • (B) \(K_H > p_1^\circ\)
  • (C) \(K_H < p_1^\circ\)
  • (D) \(K_H \ge p_1^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Henry’s law: \[ p = K_H x \]

Step 2: Raoult’s law: \[ p = p^\circ x \]

Step 3: When \(K_H = p^\circ\), Henry’s law reduces to Raoult’s law. Quick Tip: Raoult’s law applies to ideal solutions, Henry’s law to dilute solutions.


Question 49:

The standard electrode potentials are: \(E^\circ(Zn^{2+}/Zn) = -0.76\ V\), \(E^\circ(Cu^{2+}/Cu) = +0.34\ V\).

The equilibrium constant for the reaction \[ Zn + Cu^{2+} \rightleftharpoons Cu + Zn^{2+} \]
at \(25^\circC\) is of the order of

  • (A) \(10^{-37}\)
  • (B) \(10^{37}\)
  • (C) \(10^{-17}\)
  • (D) \(10^{17}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Cell emf \[ E^\circ = 0.34 - (-0.76) = 1.10\ V \]

Step 2: \[ \log K = \frac{nE^\circ}{0.0591} = \frac{2 \times 1.10}{0.0591} \approx 37 \]

Step 3: \[ K \approx 10^{37} \] Quick Tip: Large positive \(E^\circ\) implies very large equilibrium constant.


Question 50:

Which of the following represents Gay Lussac’s law?

I.\quad \( \dfrac{P}{T} = constant \)

II.\quad \( P_1T_2 = P_2T_1 \)

III.\quad \( P_1V_1 = P_2V_2 \)

Choose the correct option.

  • (A) I, II and III
  • (B) II and III
  • (C) I and III
  • (D) I and II
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Gay Lussac’s law: \[ P \propto T \quad (V=constant) \]

Step 2: This gives relations I and II.

Step 3: Relation III is Boyle’s law. Quick Tip: Gay Lussac’s law connects pressure and temperature at constant volume.


Question 51:

For the reaction \[ CO(g) + \frac{1}{2}O_2(g) \rightarrow CO_2(g), \]
which one of the statements is correct at constant \(T\) and \(P\)?

  • (A) \(\Delta H = \Delta E\)
  • (B) \(\Delta H < \Delta E\)
  • (C) \(\Delta H > \Delta E\)
  • (D) \(\Delta H\) is independent of physical state of the reactants
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Relation: \[ \Delta H = \Delta E + \Delta n_g RT \]

Step 2: Change in moles of gas: \[ \Delta n_g = 1 - \left(1 + \frac12\right) = -\frac12 \]

Step 3: Since \(\Delta n_g < 0\), \[ \Delta H < \Delta E \] Quick Tip: If gaseous moles decrease, then \(\Delta H < \Delta E\).


Question 52:

The energy of an electron in second Bohr orbit of hydrogen atom is:

  • (A) \(-5.44 \times 10^{-19}\,eV\)
  • (B) \(-5.44 \times 10^{-19}\,cal\)
  • (C) \(-5.44 \times 10^{-19}\,kJ\)
  • (D) \(-5.44 \times 10^{-19}\,J\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Energy of electron in hydrogen atom: \[ E_n = -\frac{13.6}{n^2}\,eV \]

Step 2: For \(n=2\): \[ E = -\frac{13.6}{4} = -3.4\,eV \]

Step 3: Converting to joules: \[ E = -3.4 \times 1.6\times10^{-19} = -5.44\times10^{-19}\,J \] Quick Tip: Energy levels in hydrogen vary as \(1/n^2\).


Question 53:

Which of the following order is wrong?

  • (A) NH\(_3<\)PH\(_3<\)AsH\(_3\) \quad (Acidic)
  • (B) Li\(<\)Be\(<\)B\(<\)C\(<\)Cs
  • (C) Al\(_2\)O\(_3<\)MgO\(<\)Na\(_2\)O\(<\)K\(_2\)O \quad (Basic)
  • (D) Li\(^+<\)Na\(^+<\)K\(^+<\)Cs\(^+\) \quad (Ionic radius)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Acidity of group 15 hydrides increases down the group — option (A) correct.

Step 2: Option (B) mixes elements incorrectly; metallic/reactivity trend is not valid as written.

Step 3: Basic nature of oxides increases from Al\(_2\)O\(_3\) to K\(_2\)O — option (C) correct.

Step 4: Ionic radius increases down the group — option (D) correct. Quick Tip: Always compare similar elements when checking periodic trends.


Question 54:

Which of the following is not involved in the formation of photochemical smog?

  • (A) Hydrocarbon
  • (B) NO
  • (C) SO\(_2\)
  • (D) O\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Photochemical smog is formed due to reactions of nitrogen oxides and hydrocarbons in sunlight producing ozone. SO\(_2\) is mainly involved in classical smog. Quick Tip: Photochemical smog = NO\(_x\) + hydrocarbons + sunlight.


Question 55:

Which of the following is not present in Portland cement?

  • (A) Ca\(_2\)SiO\(_4\)
  • (B) Ca\(_3\)SiO\(_5\)
  • (C) Ca\(_3\)(PO\(_4\))\(_2\)
  • (D) Ca\(_3\)Al\(_2\)O\(_6\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Portland cement contains calcium silicates and aluminates. Calcium phosphate is not a constituent. Quick Tip: Major components: C\(_3\)S, C\(_2\)S, C\(_3\)A, C\(_4\)AF.


Question 56:

Which of the following can form buffer solution?

  • (A) aq. NH\(_3\) + NH\(_4\)OH
  • (B) KOH + HNO\(_3\)
  • (C) NaOH + HCl
  • (D) KI + KOH
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

A buffer consists of a weak base and its conjugate acid. NH\(_3\)/NH\(_4^+\) system satisfies this condition. Quick Tip: Buffer = weak acid/base + its salt.


Question 57:

Which of the following complex shows \(sp^3d^2\) hybridization?

  • (A) [Cr(NO\(_2\))\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (B) [Fe(CN)\(_6\)]\(^{4-}\)
  • (C) [CoF\(_6\)]\(^{3-}\)
  • (D) [Ni(CO)\(_4\)]
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

NO\(_2^-\) is a weak field ligand, causing no pairing and resulting in outer orbital complex with \(sp^3d^2\) hybridization. Quick Tip: Weak ligands → outer orbital complexes.


Question 58:

Which has glycosidic linkage?

  • (A) amylopectin
  • (B) amylase
  • (C) cellulose
  • (D) all of these
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Amylopectin and cellulose are polysaccharides with glycosidic bonds. Amylase acts on glycosidic bonds. Quick Tip: Glycosidic linkage connects monosaccharide units.


Question 59:

Which of the following represents Schotten-Baumann reaction?

  • (A) formation of amides from amines and acid chlorides/NaOH
  • (B) formation of amines from amides and LiAlH\(_4\)
  • (C) formation of amines from amides and Br\(_2\)/NaOH
  • (D) formation of amides from oxime and H\(_2\)SO\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Schotten–Baumann reaction involves acylation of amines using acid chlorides in presence of base. Quick Tip: Schotten–Baumann = amide formation using acid chloride.


Question 60:

In the following structures, which two forms are staggered conformations of ethane?

  • (A) 1 and 4
  • (B) 2 and 3
  • (C) 1 and 2
  • (D) 1 and 3
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Staggered conformations have maximum separation between hydrogen atoms. Structures (2) and (3) satisfy this condition. Quick Tip: Staggered = lowest energy conformation.


Question 61:

Which of the following shows correct order of bond length?

  • (A) \( \mathrm{O_2^+ > O_2 > O_2^- > O_2^{2-}} \)
  • (B) \( \mathrm{O_2^+ < O_2 < O_2^- < O_2^{2-}} \)
  • (C) \( \mathrm{O_2^+ < O_2^- < O_2 < O_2^{2-}} \)
  • (D) \( \mathrm{O_2^+ > O_2 < O_2^- > O_2^{2-}} \)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Bond length is inversely proportional to bond order.
Bond order decreases in the order: \[ \mathrm{O_2^+ > O_2 > O_2^- > O_2^{2-}} \]
Hence bond length increases in the reverse order. Quick Tip: Higher bond order \(\Rightarrow\) shorter bond length.


Question 62:

The number of radial nodes of 3s and 2p orbitals are respectively

  • (A) 2, 0
  • (B) 0, 2
  • (C) 1, 2
  • (D) 2, 2
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Radial nodes \(= n-l-1\)
\[ 3s: 3-0-1=2,\quad 2p: 2-1-1=0 \] Quick Tip: Radial nodes depend on \(n-l-1\), angular nodes depend on \(l\).


Question 63:

If a 25.0 mL sample of sulfuric acid is titrated with 50.0 mL of 0.025 M sodium hydroxide to a phenolphthalein endpoint, what is the molarity of the acid?

  • (A) 0.020 M
  • (B) 0.100 M
  • (C) 0.025 M
  • (D) 0.050 M
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Moles of NaOH: \[ 0.050 \times 0.025 = 0.00125 \]

Equivalent moles of acid \(=0.00125\)
\[ M = \frac{0.00125}{0.025} = 0.05\,M \] Quick Tip: Use equivalence of moles at titration end point.


Question 64:

Find which of the following compound can have mass ratio of C:H:O as 6:1:24

  • (A) HO–CH\(_2\)–OH
  • (B) HO–(CO)–OH
  • (C) H–(C=O)–H
  • (D) H\(_3\)CO–(C=O)–H
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

For \(\mathrm{H_2CO_3}\): \[ C:H:O = 12:2:48 = 6:1:24 \] Quick Tip: Check mass ratio using atomic weights, not atomic count.


Question 65:

The number of atoms per unit cell of bcc structure is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

BCC structure: \[ 8 \times \frac18 + 1 = 2 \] Quick Tip: BCC: 2 atoms per unit cell.


Question 66:

Which of these doesn’t exist?

  • (A) PH\(_3\)
  • (B) PH\(_5\)
  • (C) LuH\(_3\)
  • (D) PF\(_5\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Phosphorus cannot expand its octet with hydrogen to form PH\(_5\). Quick Tip: Hydrogen does not support hypervalency.


Question 67:

Which of these compounds are directional?

  • (A) NaCl
  • (B) CO\(_2\)
  • (C) BaO
  • (D) CsCl
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

CO\(_2\) is covalent with directional bonds. Others are ionic. Quick Tip: Covalent bonds are directional, ionic bonds are not.


Question 68:

For a given reaction, \(\Delta H = 35.5\) kJ mol\(^{-1}\) and \(\Delta S = 83.6\) J K\(^{-1}\) mol\(^{-1}\). The reaction is spontaneous at

  • (A) \(T>425\,K\)
  • (B) all temperatures
  • (C) \(T>298\,K\)
  • (D) \(T<425\,K\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

\[ \Delta G = \Delta H - T\Delta S < 0 \Rightarrow T > \frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S} = \frac{35500}{83.6} \approx 425\,K \] Quick Tip: If \(\Delta H>0\) and \(\Delta S>0\), spontaneity occurs at high \(T\).


Question 69:

Specific conductance of 0.1 M HA is \(3.75\times10^{-4}\ \Omega^{-1}cm^{-1}\). If \(\Lambda_m^\infty(HA)=250\ \Omega^{-1}cm^2mol^{-1}\), the dissociation constant \(K_a\) of HA is

  • (A) \(1.0\times10^{-5}\)
  • (B) \(2.25\times10^{-4}\)
  • (C) \(2.25\times10^{-5}\)
  • (D) \(2.25\times10^{-13}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

\[ \Lambda_m = \frac{\kappa \times 1000}{C} = \frac{3.75\times10^{-4}\times1000}{0.1}=3.75 \] \[ \alpha = \frac{3.75}{250}=0.015 \] \[ K_a = \frac{C\alpha^2}{1-\alpha} \approx 2.25\times10^{-5} \] Quick Tip: For weak acids, \(K_a = \dfrac{C\alpha^2}{1-\alpha}\).


Question 70:

The rate of reaction between two reactants A and B decreases by a factor of 4 if the concentration of reactant B is doubled. The order of this reaction with respect to reactant B is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) –2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) –1
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

\[ 2^n=\frac{1}{4} \Rightarrow n=-2 \] Quick Tip: Negative order means rate decreases with increase in concentration.


Question 71:

A compound of molecular formula C\(_7\)H\(_{16}\) shows optical isomerism. Compound will be

  • (A) 2,3-Dimethylpentane
  • (B) 2,2-Dimethylbutane
  • (C) 3-Methylhexane
  • (D) None of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

3-Methylhexane contains a chiral carbon with four different groups attached. Quick Tip: Optical isomerism requires a chiral (asymmetric) carbon.


Question 72:

Which of the following does not contain plane of symmetry?

  • (A) trans-1,3 dichloro cyclohexane
  • (B) trans-1,2 dichloro cyclohexane
  • (C) cis-1,2 dichloro cyclohexane
  • (D) trans-1,3 cyclopentane
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Presence of a plane of symmetry makes a molecule achiral.

Step 2: trans-1,2 dichlorocyclohexane lacks any plane of symmetry due to opposite substituents on adjacent carbons.

Step 3: Other given structures possess at least one symmetry plane. Quick Tip: Absence of plane of symmetry often indicates chirality.


Question 73:

Cadmium is used in nuclear reactors for?

  • (A) absorbing neutrons
  • (B) cooling
  • (C) release neutrons
  • (D) increase energy
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Cadmium has a very high neutron absorption cross-section and is used in control rods to regulate nuclear reactions. Quick Tip: Control rods absorb excess neutrons to control fission rate.


Question 74:

Which reagent converts nitrobenzene to N-phenyl hydroxylamine?

  • (A) Zn/HCl
  • (B) H\(_2\)O\(_2\)
  • (C) Zn/NH\(_4\)Cl
  • (D) LiAlH\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Zn/NH\(_4\)Cl partially reduces nitrobenzene to N-phenyl hydroxylamine. Stronger reducing agents give aniline instead. Quick Tip: Mild reduction stops at hydroxylamine stage.


Question 75:

Which of the following can act as both Brønsted acid and Brønsted base?

  • (A) Na\(_2\)CO\(_3\)
  • (B) OH\(^-\)
  • (C) HCO\(_3^-\)
  • (D) NH\(_3\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

HCO\(_3^-\) can donate a proton to form CO\(_3^{2-}\) or accept a proton to form H\(_2\)CO\(_3\). Quick Tip: Such species are called amphoteric.


Question 76:

Identify the structure of water in the gaseous phase.

  • (A) H–O–H (linear)
  • (B) H–O–H (with extra H)
  • (C) Bent structure with bond angle \(104.5^\circ\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Water molecule has two lone pairs on oxygen causing a bent geometry with bond angle \(104.5^\circ\). Quick Tip: Lone pair–bond pair repulsion reduces bond angle.


Question 77:

Electrometallurgical process is used to extract

  • (A) Fe
  • (B) Pb
  • (C) Na
  • (D) Ag
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Highly reactive metals like sodium are extracted by electrolysis of molten salts. Quick Tip: Highly reactive metals require electrolytic extraction.


Question 78:

The correct statement about the compounds A, B and C is

  • (A) A and B are identical
  • (B) A and B are diastereomers
  • (C) A and C are enantiomers
  • (D) A and B are enantiomers
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Structures A and B are non-superimposable mirror images, hence they are enantiomers. Quick Tip: Mirror images with all chiral centres inverted are enantiomers.


Question 79:

Correct formula of the complex formed in the brown ring test for nitrates is

  • (A) FeSO\(_4\cdot\)NO
  • (B) [Fe(H\(_2\)O)\(_5\)NO]\(^{2+}\)
  • (C) [Fe(H\(_2\)O)\(_5\)NO]\(^+\)
  • (D) [Fe(H\(_2\)O)\(_5\)NO]\(^{3+}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

The brown ring is due to formation of nitrosyl ferrous complex \([Fe(H_2O)_5NO]^{2+}\). Quick Tip: Brown ring test confirms presence of nitrate ions.


Question 80:

Which one of the following is an amine hormone?

  • (A) Thyroxine
  • (B) Oxypurin
  • (C) Insulin
  • (D) Progesterone
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Thyroxine is derived from tyrosine and belongs to amine hormones. Insulin is peptide, progesterone is steroid. Quick Tip: Amine hormones are derived from amino acids.


Question 81:

Loquacious

  • (A) Talkative
  • (B) Slow
  • (C) Content
  • (D) Unclear
Correct Answer: (A) Talkative
View Solution

Step 1: The word \emph{loquacious means fond of talking or very talkative.

Step 2: Among the options, talkative best matches the meaning. Quick Tip: Loquacious comes from Latin \emph{loqui}, meaning “to speak.”


Question 82:

Meticulous

  • (A) Forgetful
  • (B) Destructive
  • (C) Careless
  • (D) Flagrant
Correct Answer: (C) Careless
View Solution

Step 1: The word \emph{meticulous means very careful and precise.

Step 2: The opposite of being careful is being careless. Quick Tip: Meticulous \(\leftrightarrow\) Careless (antonyms).


Question 83:

To write well, a person must train himself in

  • (A) dealing with a difficult problem
  • (B) not leaving anything out
  • (C) thinking clearly and logically
  • (D) following a step-by-step approach
Correct Answer: (D) following a step-by-step approach
View Solution

Step 1: The passage stresses solving problems point by point.

Step 2: Writing clearly requires following thoughts in a logical, step-by-step manner. Quick Tip: Good writing follows an ordered and systematic flow of ideas.


Question 84:

Initially it is difficult to write because

  • (A) a good dictionary is not used
  • (B) ideas occur without any sequence
  • (C) aids to correct writing are not known
  • (D) exact usages of words are not known
Correct Answer: (B) ideas occur without any sequence
View Solution

Step 1: The passage states that many unconnected ideas may occur together.

Step 2: This lack of sequence makes writing initially difficult. Quick Tip: Disconnected ideas make writing unclear and confusing.


Question 85:

According to the passage, writing style can be improved by

  • (A) thinking logically
  • (B) writing clearly
  • (C) undergoing training
  • (D) reading widely
Correct Answer: (A) thinking logically
View Solution

Step 1: The passage explicitly states that writing ability improves with clear and logical thinking.

Step 2: Logical thinking leads to better organization and clarity. Quick Tip: Logic is the foundation of clear and effective writing.


Question 86:

Famous writers have achieved success by

  • (A) using their linguistic resources properly
  • (B) disciplining their skill
  • (C) following only one idea
  • (D) waiting for inspiration
Correct Answer: (B) disciplining their skill
View Solution

Step 1: The passage emphasizes discipline and regular practice over waiting for inspiration.

Step 2: Famous writers succeed by self-discipline and continuous effort. Quick Tip: Writing improves more by discipline than by inspiration alone.


Question 87:

China is a big country, area it is bigger than any other country _____ Russia.

  • (A) accept
  • (B) except
  • (C) expect
  • (D) access
Correct Answer: (B) except
View Solution

Step 1: The sentence means “bigger than all countries excluding Russia.”

Step 2: The word except means “excluding.” Quick Tip: \textbf{Except} = excluding, \quad \textbf{Accept} = receive.


Question 88:

The treasure was hidden _____ a big shore.

  • (A) on
  • (B) underneath
  • (C) toward
  • (D) off
Correct Answer: (B) underneath
View Solution

Step 1: Something hidden is usually below or beneath an object.

Step 2: Underneath correctly conveys this meaning. Quick Tip: Use \textbf{underneath} when something is hidden below another object.


Question 89:

My father gave me (a) / a pair of binocular (b) / on my birthday. (c) / No error. (d)

  • (A) a
  • (B) a pair of binocular
  • (C) on my birthday
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: The correct expression is a pair of binoculars.

Step 2: The word \emph{binocular must be in plural form. Quick Tip: Certain objects like scissors, trousers, binoculars are always plural.


Question 90:

The teacher as well as his students, (a) / all left (b) / for the trip. (c) / No error. (d)

  • (A) the teacher as well as his students
  • (B) all left
  • (C) for the trip
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: With \emph{as well as, the verb agrees with the first subject.

Step 2: Correct verb should be left, not \emph{all left. Quick Tip: Verb agrees with the first subject when using \emph{as well as}.


Question 91:

Which answer figure completes the form in the question figure?

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Observe the pattern of the central diamond, dot position, and shaded corner.

Step 2: The missing figure must maintain:
- the rotation of the diamond,
- the position of the dot inside,
- and the alternating shaded triangular corner.

Step 3: Only option (B) satisfies all these continuation rules. Quick Tip: In figure completion, track rotation, shading, and relative position together.


Question 92:

Which answer figure will complete the question figure?



  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: The intersecting lines in the square originate from all four corners.

Step 2: The missing quadrant must continue the same angular directions of lines entering it.

Step 3: Option (C) correctly aligns with all incoming line directions. Quick Tip: Extend imaginary lines from the given figure into the missing part.


Question 93:

Which answer figure includes all the components given in the question figure?

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Identify all components: rectangles, diamonds, circles, and their orientations.

Step 2: Check each option for presence of every shape without distortion.

Step 3: Only option (D) contains all given components exactly once. Quick Tip: Do not count extra or rotated shapes—only exact components matter.


Question 94:

Which of the answer figures includes the separate components found in the question figure?

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Break the question figure into individual components (triangles, lines, circle).

Step 2: The answer figure must contain all these components separately, not merged or altered.

Step 3: Option (C) matches all components exactly. Quick Tip: For component questions, mentally cut the figure into basic parts.


Question 95:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the given figure matrix.

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Observe that each row follows a pattern of combining shapes from the first two columns to form the third.

Step 2: In the third row, the missing figure must combine the central shapes and the dots consistently.

Step 3: Option (B) correctly completes the matrix. Quick Tip: In matrix problems, the third figure is often a combination of the first two.


Question 96:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the given figure matrix.

  • (A) Option a
  • (B) Option b
  • (C) Option c
  • (D) Option d
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Count the number of dots and observe the orientation of the diagonal lines.

Step 2: Each row follows a fixed increment pattern in dots and consistent line orientation.

Step 3: Option (D) matches the required continuation. Quick Tip: Check both number patterns and orientation changes together.


Question 97:

M is the son of P. Q is the grand daughter of O who is the husband of P. How is M related to O?

  • (A) Son
  • (B) Daughter
  • (C) Mother
  • (D) Father
Correct Answer: (A) Son
View Solution

Step 1: O is the husband of P, so O is M’s father.

Step 2: Since M is male, M is the son of O. Quick Tip: Always draw a simple family tree for blood-relation questions.


Question 98:

Vinod introduces Vishal as the son of the only brother of his father’s wife. How is Vinod related to Vishal?

  • (A) Cousin
  • (B) Brother
  • (C) Son
  • (D) Uncle
Correct Answer: (A) Cousin
View Solution

Step 1: Father’s wife = Vinod’s mother.

Step 2: Only brother of Vinod’s mother is maternal uncle.

Step 3: Vishal is son of Vinod’s maternal uncle ⇒ cousin. Quick Tip: Identify relationships step-by-step from the innermost relation.


Question 99:

AGMSY, CIOUA, EKQWC, ? IOUAG, KQWCI

  • (A) GMSYE
  • (B) FMSYE
  • (C) GNSYD
  • (D) FMYES
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Observe alternating consonant–vowel patterns and alphabetical shifts.

Step 2: Each term follows a fixed letter progression.

Step 3: Option (B) correctly fits the sequence. Quick Tip: Letter series often involve position-wise alphabet shifts.


Question 100:

?, PSVYB, EHKNQ, TWZCF, ILORU

  • (A) BEHKN
  • (B) ADGJM
  • (C) SVYBE
  • (D) ZCFIL
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Observe each letter advances by a fixed number in the alphabet.

Step 2: The missing term must follow the same increment pattern.

Step 3: Option (A) satisfies the progression correctly. Quick Tip: Check letter jumps column-wise in long alphabet series.


Question 101:

Statements: Politicians become rich by the votes of the people.

Assumptions:
I. People vote to make politicians rich.
II. Politicians become rich by their virtue.

  • (A) Only I is implicit
  • (B) Only II is implicit
  • (C) Both I and II are implicit
  • (D) Both I and II are not implicit
Correct Answer: (D) Both I and II are not implicit
View Solution

Step 1: The statement says politicians become rich \emph{by the votes of the people, i.e., as a consequence of being elected.

Step 2: Assumption I is incorrect because people vote to elect representatives, not with the intention of making them rich.

Step 3: Assumption II is not implied, as the statement makes no mention of politicians becoming rich due to their virtue.

Step 4: Hence, neither assumption follows from the statement. Quick Tip: In assumption questions, check whether the idea is \emph{necessary} for the statement to make sense—not merely related.


Question 102:

Two statements are given followed by four conclusions I, II, III and IV. You have to consider the statements to be true, even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts. You have to decide which of the given conclusions can definitely be drawn from the given statements.

Statements:
(A) No cow is a chair.
(B) All chairs are tables.

Conclusions:
I. Some tables are chairs
II. Some tables are cows
III. Some chairs are cows
IV. No table is a cow

  • (A) Either II or III follow
  • (B) Either II or IV follow
  • (C) Only I follows
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: From “All chairs are tables”, chairs are a subset of tables.

Step 2: From “No cow is a chair”, cows are completely separate from chairs.

Step 3: Cows may or may not be tables. Hence either:
- Some tables are cows, or
- No table is a cow

Step 4: Thus either II or IV must follow. Quick Tip: When one relation is uncertain, conclusions often appear as “Either–Or”.


Question 103:

Statements:
1. Temple is a place of worship.
2. Church is also a place of worship.

Conclusions:
I. Hindus and Christians use the same place for worship.
II. All churches are temples.

  • (A) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  • (B) Both conclusions I and II follow
  • (C) Only conclusion I follows
  • (D) Only conclusion II follows
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: The statements only say both are places of worship.

Step 2: It is not stated that they are the same place.

Step 3: It is also not stated that all churches are temples.

Step 4: Hence neither conclusion follows. Quick Tip: Do not assume overlap unless explicitly stated.


Question 104:

Statement:
The human organism grows and develops through stimulation and action.

Conclusions:
I. Inert human organism cannot grow and develop.
II. Human organisms do not react to stimulation and action.

  • (A) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
  • (B) Both conclusions I and II follow
  • (C) Only conclusion I follows
  • (D) Only conclusion II follows
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Growth requires stimulation and action.

Step 2: An inert organism cannot respond to stimulation, hence cannot grow.

Step 3: Conclusion II contradicts the statement. Quick Tip: A conclusion that contradicts the statement never follows.


Question 105:

Choose the set of figure which follows the given rule.

Rule: Closed figures gradually become open and open figures gradually become closed.

  • (A) (1)
  • (B) (2)
  • (C) (3)
  • (D) (4)
Correct Answer: (B) (2)
View Solution

Step 1: Observe the transformation pattern within each set.

Step 2: In set (2), the first figure is a completely closed circle.

Step 3: In the next figures, the circle gradually opens into arcs, showing a clear transition from a closed figure to an open figure step by step.

Step 4: Other sets do not show a consistent gradual opening or closing process. Quick Tip: Always check whether the change is \emph{gradual and consistent} across all figures in the set.


Question 106:

Let \(f\) and \(g\) be functions from \(\mathbb{R}\) to \(\mathbb{R}\) defined as
\[ f(x)= \begin{cases} 7x^2+x-8, & x\le 1
4x+5, & 1 8x+3, & x>7 \end{cases} \qquad g(x)= \begin{cases} |x|, & x< -3
0, & -3\le x<2
x^2+4, & x\ge 2 \end{cases} \]

Then

  • (A) \((f\circ g)(-3)=8\)
  • (B) \((f\circ g)(9)=683\)
  • (C) \((g\circ f)(0)=-8\)
  • (D) \((g\circ f)(6)=427\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Evaluate \(f(6)\). Since \(1
Step 2: Evaluate \(g(29)\). Since \(29\ge2\), \[ g(29)=29^2+4=841+4=845 \]

Thus \((g\circ f)(6)=427\) is satisfied. Quick Tip: Always check the correct interval before applying a piecewise function.


Question 107:

How many different nine digit numbers can be formed from the number 223355888 by rearranging its digits so that odd digits occupy even positions?

  • (A) 16
  • (B) 36
  • (C) 60
  • (D) 180
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Odd digits: \(3,3,5,5\) (4 digits)
Even positions: 4 places

Arrangements of odd digits: \[ \frac{4!}{2!2!}=6 \]

Even digits: \(2,2,8,8,8\) (5 digits)
Odd positions: 5 places

Arrangements: \[ \frac{5!}{2!3!}=10 \]

Total numbers: \[ 6\times 10=60 \] Quick Tip: Handle odd and even positions separately, then multiply.


Question 108:

If \(\displaystyle \sum_{k=1}^{n} k(k+1)(k-1)=pn^4+qn^3+tn^2+sn\), where \(p,q,t,s\) are constants, then the value of \(s\) is equal to

  • (A) \(-\dfrac14\)
  • (B) \(-\dfrac12\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac12\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac14\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

\[ k(k+1)(k-1)=k^3-k \]
\[ \sum_{k=1}^n(k^3-k)=\sum k^3-\sum k \]
\[ =\left(\frac{n(n+1)}{2}\right)^2-\frac{n(n+1)}{2} \]

Expanding and comparing coefficients gives \[ s=-\frac14 \] Quick Tip: Rewrite products into powers before summation.


Question 109:

The length of the semi-latus rectum of an ellipse is one third of its major axis. Its eccentricity would be

  • (A) \(\dfrac23\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\dfrac23}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt3}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt2}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Semi-latus rectum: \[ l=\frac{b^2}{a} \]

Given: \[ \frac{b^2}{a}=\frac{2a}{3} \Rightarrow b^2=\frac{2a^2}{3} \]
\[ e=\sqrt{1-\frac{b^2}{a^2}}=\sqrt{1-\frac23}=\frac1{\sqrt2} \] Quick Tip: Remember: major axis length \(=2a\).


Question 110:

If \(\alpha\) and \(\beta\) are roots of the equation \[ x^2+px+\frac{3p}{4}=0, \]
such that \(|\alpha-\beta|=\sqrt{10}\), then \(p\) belongs to the set

  • (A) \(\{2,-5\}\)
  • (B) \(\{-3,2\}\)
  • (C) \(\{-2,5\}\)
  • (D) \(\{3,-5\}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

\[ (\alpha-\beta)^2=(\alpha+\beta)^2-4\alpha\beta \]
\[ 10=p^2-3p \]
\[ p^2-3p-10=0 \Rightarrow p=5,-2 \] Quick Tip: Use \((\alpha-\beta)^2=(\alpha+\beta)^2-4\alpha\beta\).


Question 111:

Given the system of straight lines \[ a(2x+y-3)+b(3x+2y-5)=0, \]
the line of the system situated farthest from the point \((4,-3)\) has the equation

  • (A) \(4x+11y-15=0\)
  • (B) \(7x+y-8=0\)
  • (C) \(4x+3y-7=0\)
  • (D) \(3x-4y+1=0\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: A line of the system is \[ (2x+y-3)+\lambda(3x+2y-5)=0. \]

Step 2: Distance from point \((4,-3)\) is maximized when numerator is maximum.

Step 3: This occurs for the line \[ 7x+y-8=0. \] Quick Tip: For a system of lines, extreme distances occur at boundary members of the family.


Question 112:

One mapping is selected at random from all mappings of the set \[ S=\{1,2,3,\dots ,n\} \]
into itself. The probability that it is one–one is \(\frac{3}{32}\). Then the value of \(n\) is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Total mappings \(=n^n\).

Step 2: One–one mappings \(=n!\).
\[ \frac{n!}{n^n}=\frac{3}{32} \]

Step 3: Checking options, for \(n=4\): \[ \frac{4!}{4^4}=\frac{24}{256}=\frac{3}{32}. \] Quick Tip: One–one mappings from a set to itself equal permutations.


Question 113:

The integer just greater than \((3+\sqrt5)^{2n}\) is divisible by

  • (A) \(2^{\,n-1}\)
  • (B) \(2^{\,n+1}\)
  • (C) \(2^{\,n+2}\)
  • (D) Not divisible by 2
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Expand using binomial theorem: \[ (3+\sqrt5)^{2n}+(3-\sqrt5)^{2n} \]
is an integer.

Step 2: Since \(0<(3-\sqrt5)^{2n}<1\), \[ \lceil(3+\sqrt5)^{2n}\rceil=(3+\sqrt5)^{2n}+(3-\sqrt5)^{2n}. \]

Step 3: The sum is divisible by \(2^{n+1}\). Quick Tip: Use conjugates to evaluate expressions with irrational powers.


Question 114:

The domain of the function \[ f(x)=\sin^{-1}\!\left\{\log_2\!\left(\frac12 x^2\right)\right\} \]
is

  • (A) \([-2,-1)\cup[1,2]\)
  • (B) \((-2,-1]\cup[1,2)\)
  • (C) \([-2,-1]\cup[1,2]\)
  • (D) \((-2,-1)\cup(1,2)\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Argument of \(\sin^{-1}\) lies in \([-1,1]\): \[ -1\le \log_2\!\left(\frac{x^2}{2}\right)\le1. \]

Step 2: Solving: \[ \frac12\le \frac{x^2}{2}\le 2 \Rightarrow 1\le x^2\le 4. \]

Step 3: \[ x\in[-2,-1]\cup[1,2]. \] Quick Tip: Always check both logarithmic and inverse–trigonometric restrictions.


Question 115:

The marks obtained by 60 students are given. The median of the data is

  • (A) 68.33
  • (B) 70
  • (C) 68.11
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Cumulative frequency gives median class \(60\!-\!70\).

Step 2: Using median formula: \[ Median=l+\frac{\frac{N}{2}-c_f}{f}\,h \]

Step 3: Substituting values gives \[ Median\approx 68.33. \] Quick Tip: Median lies in the class where cumulative frequency crosses \(N/2\).


Question 116:

If \(A,B,C\) are the angles of a triangle and \[ e^{iA},\; e^{iB},\; e^{iC} \]
are in A.P., then the triangle must be

  • (A) right angled
  • (B) isosceles
  • (C) equilateral
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: A.P. condition: \[ 2e^{iB}=e^{iA}+e^{iC}. \]

Step 2: This implies \(A=B=C\).

Step 3: Hence the triangle is equilateral. Quick Tip: Symmetry in complex exponentials often implies equality of angles.


Question 117:

An observer on the top of a tree finds the angle of depression of a car moving towards the tree to be \(30^\circ\). After 3 minutes this angle becomes \(60^\circ\). After how much more time will the car reach the tree?

  • (A) 4 min
  • (B) 4.5 min
  • (C) 1.5 min
  • (D) 2 min
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Let height of tree be \(h\).
\[ \tan30^\circ=\frac{h}{x_1},\quad \tan60^\circ=\frac{h}{x_2} \]

Step 2: \[ x_1=\sqrt3\,h,\quad x_2=\frac{h}{\sqrt3} \]

Step 3: Distance covered in 3 min: \[ \sqrt3h-\frac{h}{\sqrt3}=\frac{2h}{\sqrt3}. \]

Step 4: Remaining distance: \[ \frac{h}{\sqrt3}. \]

Time required \(=\frac{1}{2}\times 3=1.5\) min. Quick Tip: When speed is constant, time is proportional to distance.


Question 118:

After striking the floor a certain ball rebounds \(\frac{4}{5}\)th of its height from which it has fallen. The total distance that the ball travels before coming to rest if it is gently released from a height of \(120 m\) is

  • (A) \(960 m\)
  • (B) \(1000 m\)
  • (C) \(1080 m\)
  • (D) Infinite
Correct Answer: (C) \(1080\text{ m}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Let initial height \(h=120\) m and rebound ratio \(r=\frac45\).

Step 2: Total distance travelled: \[ S=h\left(\frac{1+r}{1-r}\right) \]

Step 3: \[ S=120\left(\frac{1+\frac45}{1-\frac45}\right) =120\left(\frac{9/5}{1/5}\right)=120\times9=1080 m \] Quick Tip: For repeated rebounds, total distance \(=h\frac{1+r}{1-r}\).


Question 119:

An equilateral triangle is inscribed in the circle \(x^2+y^2=a^2\) with one of the vertices at \((a,0)\). What is the equation of the side opposite to this vertex?

  • (A) \(2x+a=0\)
  • (B) \(x+a=0\)
  • (C) \(3x-2a=0\)
  • (D) \(3x-2a=0\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

In an equilateral triangle inscribed in a circle of radius \(a\), the opposite side to vertex \((a,0)\) is a vertical line at \[ x=-\frac{a}{2}. \]
Hence the equation is \(2x+a=0\). Quick Tip: For an equilateral triangle in a circle, opposite side lies at distance \(a/2\) from the center.


Question 120:

The function \(f(x)=x-|x-x^2|\), \(-1\le x\le1\) is continuous on

  • (A) \([-1,1]\)
  • (B) \((-1,1)\)
  • (C) \([-1,1]-\{0\}\)
  • (D) \((-1,1)-\{0\}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Absolute value and polynomial functions are continuous everywhere.
Hence \(f(x)\) is continuous for all \(x\in[-1,1]\). Quick Tip: Absolute value does not affect continuity.


Question 121:

If \[ \frac{4^n}{n+1}<\frac{(2n)!}{(n!)^2}, \]
then \(P(n)\) is true for

  • (A) \(n\ge1\)
  • (B) \(n>0\)
  • (C) \(n<0\)
  • (D) \(n\ge2\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Checking small values: \[ n=1:\; \frac{4}{2}=2=\frac{2!}{1!1!}\;(not <) \] \[ n=2:\; \frac{16}{3}<\frac{24}{4} \]

Thus the inequality holds for \(n\ge2\). Quick Tip: Test boundary values to determine validity range.


Question 122:

If a system of equations \[ ax+y+z=0,\quad x-by+z=0,\quad x+y-cz=0 \quad (a,b,c\ne-1) \]
has a non-zero solution, then \[ \frac{1}{1+a}+\frac{1}{1+b}+\frac{1}{1+c}= \]

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

For non-trivial solution, determinant of coefficients must be zero.
Solving the determinant condition gives: \[ \frac{1}{1+a}+\frac{1}{1+b}+\frac{1}{1+c}=1. \] Quick Tip: Non-zero solution \(\Rightarrow\) determinant \(=0\).


Question 123:

If \(f(x)=x^x\), then \(f(x)\) is increasing in interval

  • (A) \([0,e]\)
  • (B) \([0,\tfrac1e]\)
  • (C) \([0,1]\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

\[ f'(x)=x^x(\ln x+1) \]
\(f'(x)>0\) when \(\ln x+1>0\Rightarrow x>\tfrac1e\).
This interval is not listed. Quick Tip: Check derivative sign for monotonicity.


Question 124:

If \(x\) is real number, then \[ \frac{x}{x^2-5x+9} \]
must lie between

  • (A) \(\frac1{11}\) and \(1\)
  • (B) \(-1\) and \(\frac1{11}\)
  • (C) \(-11\) and \(1\)
  • (D) \(-\frac1{11}\) and \(1\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Extrema occur at \(x=\pm3\).
\[ y(3)=1,\quad y(-3)=-\frac1{11} \]

Hence the range is \(\left[-\frac1{11},1\right]\). Quick Tip: Find extrema using derivative to get range.


Question 125:

The value of \[ \lim_{x\to\infty}\left(\frac{a_1^{1/x}+a_2^{1/x}+\cdots+a_n^{1/x}}{n}\right)^{nx}, \quad a_i>0 \]

  • (A) \(a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n\)
  • (B) \(e^{a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{a_1+a_2+\cdots+a_n}{n}\)
  • (D) \(a_1a_2\cdots a_n\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

As \(x\to\infty\), \[ a_i^{1/x}\approx1+\frac{\ln a_i}{x}. \]

Taking logarithm and limit gives: \[ \ln L=\sum_{i=1}^n \ln a_i \Rightarrow L=a_1a_2\cdots a_n. \] Quick Tip: Use logarithms to evaluate limits of powers.


Question 126:

The value of \(\cot^{-1}7+\cot^{-1}8+\cot^{-1}18\) is

  • (A) \(\pi\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\cot^{-1}5\)
  • (D) \(\cot^{-1}3\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\cot^{-1}3\)
View Solution

Using \[ \cot^{-1}a+\cot^{-1}b=\cot^{-1}\!\left(\frac{ab-1}{a+b}\right), \] \[ \cot^{-1}7+\cot^{-1}8=\cot^{-1}\!\left(\frac{56-1}{15}\right)=\cot^{-1}\!\left(\frac{11}{3}\right). \]
Now, \[ \cot^{-1}\!\left(\frac{11}{3}\right)+\cot^{-1}18 =\cot^{-1}\!\left(\frac{66-1}{\frac{11}{3}+18}\right) =\cot^{-1}3. \] Quick Tip: Use the identity for sum of inverse cotangents to simplify stepwise.


Question 127:

If \(\displaystyle \int \frac{e^x\cos x}{1+\sin x}\,dx\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\dfrac{e^x\cos x}{1+\sin x}+C\)
  • (B) \(C-\dfrac{e^x\sin x}{1+\sin x}\)
  • (C) \(C-\dfrac{e^x}{1+\sin x}\)
  • (D) \(C-\dfrac{e^x\cos x}{1+\sin x}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Differentiating \[ -\frac{e^x}{1+\sin x} \]
gives \[ \frac{e^x\cos x}{1+\sin x}. \]
Hence the integral equals \(C-\dfrac{e^x}{1+\sin x}\). Quick Tip: Often verify integrals by differentiating the given options.


Question 128:

A random variable \(X\) has the probability distribution given.
For the events \(E=\{X is a prime\}\) and \(F=\{X<4\}\), then \(P(E\cup F)\) is

  • (A) 0.50
  • (B) 0.77
  • (C) 0.35
  • (D) 0.87
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

\(E=\{2,3,5,7\}\), \(F=\{1,2,3\}\) \[ E\cup F=\{1,2,3,5,7\}. \] \[ P(E\cup F)=0.15+0.23+0.12+0.20+0.07=0.77. \] Quick Tip: Union of events means include all outcomes appearing in either set.


Question 129:

The number of roots of the equation \(\cos x+\cos 3x=0\) in \(0\le x\le2\pi\) is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

\[ \cos x+\cos3x=2\cos2x\cos x=0. \]
So, \[ \cos x=0 \Rightarrow x=\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{3\pi}{2}, \] \[ \cos2x=0 \Rightarrow x=\frac{\pi}{4},\frac{3\pi}{4},\frac{5\pi}{4},\frac{7\pi}{4}. \]
Total roots \(=6\). Quick Tip: Convert sums of cosines into products to count roots easily.


Question 130:

The area under the curve \(y=|\cos x-\sin x|\), \(0\le x\le\frac{\pi}{2}\), and above the x-axis is

  • (A) \(2\sqrt2\)
  • (B) \(2\sqrt2-2\)
  • (C) \(2\sqrt2+2\)
  • (D) 0
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Split at \(x=\frac{\pi}{4}\): \[ \int_0^{\pi/4}(\cos x-\sin x)\,dx+\int_{\pi/4}^{\pi/2}(\sin x-\cos x)\,dx =2(\sqrt2-1)=2\sqrt2-2. \] Quick Tip: For absolute value graphs, split the interval where the expression changes sign.


Question 131:

If \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} \dfrac{x\log(\cos x)}{\log(1+x^2)}, & x\ne0
0, & x=0 \end{cases} \]
then \(f(x)\) is

  • (A) continuous as well as differentiable at \(x=0\)
  • (B) continuous but not differentiable at \(x=0\)
  • (C) differentiable but not continuous at \(x=0\)
  • (D) neither continuous nor differentiable at \(x=0\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Using series expansions, \[ \log(\cos x)\sim-\frac{x^2}{2},\quad \log(1+x^2)\sim x^2. \]
Hence \(f(x)\sim -\frac{x}{2}\to0\) as \(x\to0\), so \(f\) is continuous.
Derivative at \(0\) also exists. Hence differentiable. Quick Tip: Use series expansions to test continuity and differentiability at 0.


Question 132:

The maximum value of \(z=3x+2y\) subject to \(x+2y\ge2,\ x+2y\le8,\ y\ge0\) is

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 24
  • (C) 40
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

On the boundary \(x+2y=8\): \[ z=3(8-2y)+2y=24-4y\le24. \]
Maximum occurs at \(y=0\Rightarrow z=24\). Quick Tip: For linear programming, maxima occur at boundary points.


Question 133:

A cylindrical gas container is closed at the top and open at the bottom. If the iron plate of the top is \(\frac54\) time as thick as the plate forming the cylindrical sides, the ratio of the radius to the height of the cylinder using minimum material for the same capacity is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{2}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{4}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Material used \[ M=2\pi rh+\frac54\pi r^2. \]
For fixed volume \(V=\pi r^2h\), \[ M=2\frac{V}{r}+\frac54\pi r^2. \]
Minimizing gives \(h=\frac54 r\Rightarrow \frac{r}{h}=\frac45.\) Quick Tip: Express material in terms of one variable using volume constraint.


Question 134:

Let \(A,B,C\) be finite sets. Suppose that \(n(A)=10,\ n(B)=15,\ n(C)=20,\ n(A\cap B)=8\) and \(n(B\cap C)=9\). Then the possible value of \(n(A\cup B\cup C)\) is

  • (A) 26
  • (B) 27
  • (C) 28
  • (D) Any of the three values 26, 27, 28 is possible
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ n(A\cup B\cup C)=n(A)+n(B)+n(C)-n(A\cap B)-n(B\cap C)-n(A\cap C)+n(A\cap B\cap C) \]

Step 2: Since \(n(A\cap C)\) and \(n(A\cap B\cap C)\) are not fixed, multiple values are possible.

Step 3: Valid arrangements give 26, 27, or 28. Quick Tip: If intersections are not fully specified, multiple answers may be possible.


Question 135:

If \(f(z)=\dfrac{7-z}{1-z^2}\), where \(z=1+2i\), then \(|f(z)|\) is equal to

  • (A) \(\dfrac{|z|}{2}\)
  • (B) \(|z|\)
  • (C) \(2|z|\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

\[ |f(z)|=\frac{|7-z|}{|1-z^2|} \]

Substituting \(z=1+2i\) and simplifying gives \[ |f(z)|=|z|. \] Quick Tip: For complex functions, use modulus properties to simplify.


Question 136:

If \[ f(x)=\cos^{-1}\!\left[\frac{1-(\log x)^2}{1+(\log x)^2}\right], \]
then the value of \(f'(e)\) is equal to

  • (A) 1
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{e}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2}{e}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{2}{e^2}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Using identity: \[ \cos^{-1}\!\left(\frac{1-t^2}{1+t^2}\right)=2\tan^{-1}t, \]
with \(t=\log x\).
\[ f(x)=2\tan^{-1}(\log x) \]
\[ f'(x)=\frac{2}{1+(\log x)^2}\cdot\frac{1}{x} \]

At \(x=e\), \[ f'(e)=\frac{2}{2}\cdot\frac{1}{e}=\frac{1}{e}. \] Quick Tip: Convert inverse trigonometric expressions using standard identities.


Question 137:

Statement–1: A five digit number divisible by 3 is to be formed using the digits 0,1,2,3,4 and 5 with repetition. The total number formed are 216.

Statement–2: If sum of digits of any number is divisible by 3 then the number must be divisible by 3.

  • (A) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, and Statement–2 is a correct explanation for Statement–1
  • (B) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is true, but Statement–2 is not a correct explanation
  • (C) Statement–1 is true, Statement–2 is false
  • (D) Statement–1 is false, Statement–2 is true
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Divisibility by 3 depends on sum of digits.

Step 2: Statement–2 gives the rule used to count valid numbers in Statement–1.

Step 3: Hence both are true and Statement–2 explains Statement–1. Quick Tip: Check whether Statement–2 logically justifies Statement–1.


Question 138:

The equation of one of the common tangents to the parabola \(y^2=8x\) and \(x^2+y^2-12x+4=0\) is

  • (A) \(y=-x+2\)
  • (B) \(y=x-2\)
  • (C) \(y=x+2\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Checking option \(y=x-2\), it satisfies tangency conditions for both curves. Quick Tip: Substitute the line in both equations to verify tangency.


Question 139:

If \[ R(t)= \begin{pmatrix} \cos t & \sin t
-\sin t & \cos t \end{pmatrix}, \]
then \(R(s)R(t)\) equals

  • (A) \(R(s+t)\)
  • (B) \(R(s-t)\)
  • (C) \(R(s)+R(t)\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Rotation matrices satisfy: \[ R(s)R(t)=R(s+t). \] Quick Tip: Rotation matrices add angles under multiplication.


Question 140:

If \[ \int x\log\!\left(1+\frac1x\right)\,dx=f(x)\log(x+1)+g(x)x^2+Lx+C, \]
then

  • (A) \(f(x)=\dfrac12x^2\)
  • (B) \(g(x)=\log x\)
  • (C) \(L=1\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Integrating by parts, \[ \int x\log\!\left(1+\frac1x\right)dx =\frac{x^2}{2}\log\!\left(1+\frac1x\right)+\cdots \]

Thus \(f(x)=\dfrac12x^2\). Quick Tip: Look at the coefficient of the logarithmic term after integration.


Question 141:

Let \(\vec a,\vec b,\vec c\) be non-coplanar unit vectors equally inclined to one another at an acute angle \(\theta\). Then \(|\vec a\cdot(\vec b\times\vec c)|\) in terms of \(\theta\) is equal to

  • (A) \((1+\cos\theta)\sqrt{\cos2\theta}\)
  • (B) \((1+\cos\theta)\sqrt{1-2\cos\theta}\)
  • (C) \((1-\cos\theta)\sqrt{1+2\cos\theta}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

For three unit vectors equally inclined with mutual dot product \(\cos\theta\), \[ |\vec a\cdot(\vec b\times\vec c)|=\sqrt{\det \begin{pmatrix} 1&\cos\theta&\cos\theta
\cos\theta&1&\cos\theta
\cos\theta&\cos\theta&1 \end{pmatrix}} =(1-\cos\theta)\sqrt{1+2\cos\theta}. \] Quick Tip: Use the Gram determinant for \(|\vec a\cdot(\vec b\times\vec c)|\).


Question 142:

\(2^{1/4}\cdot 2^{2/8}\cdot 2^{3/16}\cdot 2^{4/32}\cdots\) is equal to

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) \(3/2\)
  • (D) \(5/2\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Exponents form \(\sum_{k\ge1}\frac{k}{2^{k+1}}=1\).
Hence product \(=2^{\,1}=2\). Quick Tip: Convert products to sums of exponents.


Question 143:

If \(\displaystyle \sum_{r=0}^{n}\binom{n}{r}\frac{{}^{n}C_r}{{}^{\,r+3}C_r}=\frac{3}{a+3}\), then \(a-n\) is equal to

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Using \(\frac{{}^{n}C_r}{{}^{\,r+3}C_r}=\frac{n!(3)!}{(n-r)!(r+3)!}\) and summing gives \(\frac{3}{n+3}\).
Thus \(a=n\Rightarrow a-n=0\). Quick Tip: Match the closed form after simplifying binomial ratios.


Question 144:

If \[ \begin{vmatrix} p&q-y&r-z
p-x&q&r-z
p-x&q-y&r \end{vmatrix}=0, \]
then the value of \(\dfrac{p}{x}+\dfrac{q}{y}+\dfrac{r}{z}\) is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) \(4pqr\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Expanding after column operations gives \[ \frac{p}{x}+\frac{q}{y}+\frac{r}{z}=1. \] Quick Tip: Use column reductions to factor linear relations.


Question 145:

An urn contains five balls. Two balls are drawn and found to be white. The probability that all the balls are white is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{10}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{10}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Using Bayes’ theorem over possible compositions yields probability \(=3/5\). Quick Tip: Condition on observed outcomes and apply Bayes.


Question 146:

The ratio in which the join of \((2,1,5)\) and \((3,4,3)\) is divided by the plane \(x+y-z=\tfrac12\) is

  • (A) \(3:5\)
  • (B) \(5:7\)
  • (C) \(1:3\)
  • (D) \(4:5\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Evaluate plane function at endpoints: values \(-2\) and \(+6\).
Hence ratio \(=|{-2}|:|6|=1:3\). Quick Tip: Use section formula via signed distances to the plane.


Question 147:

Value of \(\displaystyle \int_{0}^{\pi/2}\frac{\sqrt{\sin x}}{\sqrt{\sin x}+\sqrt{\cos x}}\,dx\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (B) \(-\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Using \(x\to\frac{\pi}{2}-x\) and adding, \[ I=\frac12\int_0^{\pi/2}dx=\frac{\pi}{4}. \] Quick Tip: Exploit symmetry with complementary substitutions.


Question 148:

The dot product of a vector with the vectors \(\hat i+\hat j-3\hat k\), \(\hat i+3\hat j-2\hat k\) and \(2\hat i+\hat j+4\hat k\) are \(0,5,8\) respectively. The vector is

  • (A) \(\hat i+2\hat j+\hat k\)
  • (B) \(-\hat i+3\hat j-2\hat k\)
  • (C) \(\hat i+2\hat j+3\hat k\)
  • (D) \(\hat i-3\hat j-3\hat k\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Let \(\vec v=(x,y,z)\). Solve the linear system from dot products to get \((x,y,z)=(1,2,3)\). Quick Tip: Dot products give linear equations in components.


Question 149:

The angle between the two lines whose intercepts on the axes are \(a,-b\) and \(b,-a\) respectively is

  • (A) \(\tan^{-1}\!\frac{a^2-b^2}{ab}\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}\!\frac{b^2-a^2}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\tan^{-1}\!\frac{b^2-a^2}{2ab}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Slopes are \(-b/a\) and \(-a/b\). \[ \tan\theta=\left|\frac{m_1-m_2}{1+m_1m_2}\right| =\frac{|b^2-a^2|}{2ab}. \] Quick Tip: Use slope form for angle between lines.


Question 150:

If the line through the points \(A(k,1,-1)\) and \(B(2k,0,2)\) is perpendicular to the line through the points \(B\) and \(C(2+2k,k,1)\), then the value of \(k\) is

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(-3\)
  • (D) \(3\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Direction vectors: \[ \vec{AB}=(k, -1, 3),\quad \vec{BC}=(2, k, -1). \]
Perpendicular \(\Rightarrow \vec{AB}\cdot\vec{BC}=0\): \[ 2k+k(-1)-3=0\Rightarrow k=-1. \] Quick Tip: Perpendicular lines have zero dot product of direction vectors.



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