BITSAT 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

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Sachin Gupta

Associate Content Manager | Updated on - Jan 3, 2026

BITSAT 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key pdf is available for download. BITSAT 2016 was conducted in online CBT mode by BITS Pilani. BITSAT 2016 Question Paper had 150 questions to be attempted in 3 hours.

BITSAT 2016 Question Paper with Answer Key PDF

BITSAT 2016 Question Paper PDF BITSAT 2016 Answer Key PDF
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Question 1:

What should be the velocity of rotation of earth due to rotation about its own axis so that the weight of a person becomes \( \frac{3}{5} \) of the present weight at the equator. Equatorial radius of the earth is \(6400\,km\).

  • (A) \(8.7 \times 10^{-7}\,rad/s\)
  • (B) \(7.8 \times 10^{-4}\,rad/s\)
  • (C) \(6.7 \times 10^{-4}\,rad/s\)
  • (D) \(7.4 \times 10^{-3}\,rad/s\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(7.8 \times 10^{-4}\,\text{rad/s}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Let the angular velocity of earth be \( \omega \).
The apparent weight at the equator is: \[ W' = mg - m\omega^2 R \]

Step 2: Given that the weight becomes \( \frac{3}{5} \) of the original weight: \[ mg - m\omega^2 R = \frac{3}{5}mg \]

Step 3: Simplifying: \[ m\omega^2 R = mg - \frac{3}{5}mg = \frac{2}{5}mg \] \[ \omega^2 = \frac{2g}{5R} \]

Step 4: Substituting values \( g = 9.8\,m/s^2 \), \( R = 6.4 \times 10^6\,m \): \[ \omega^2 = \frac{2 \times 9.8}{5 \times 6.4 \times 10^6} = 6.125 \times 10^{-7} \] \[ \omega = \sqrt{6.125 \times 10^{-7}} \approx 7.8 \times 10^{-4}\,rad/s \] Quick Tip: At the equator, apparent weight decreases due to centrifugal force. Always use: \( W = mg - m\omega^2 R \) for rotating frames.


Question 2:

Block A of mass \(m\) and block B of mass \(2m\) are placed on a fixed triangular wedge by means of a massless, inextensible string and a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure. The wedge is inclined at \(45^\circ\) to the horizontal on both the sides. If the coefficient of friction between block A and the wedge is \( \frac{2}{3} \) and that between block B and the wedge is \( \frac{1}{3} \), and both the blocks A and B are released from rest, the acceleration of A will be:

  • (A) \( -1\,m s^{-2} \)
  • (B) \( 1.2\,m s^{-2} \)
  • (C) \( 0.2\,m s^{-2} \)
  • (D) zero
Correct Answer: (D) zero
View Solution

Step 1: Component of weight along incline for A: \[ mg\sin45^\circ = \frac{mg}{\sqrt{2}}, \quad f_A = \mu_A mg\cos45^\circ = \frac{2}{3}\cdot\frac{mg}{\sqrt{2}} \]

Step 2: Net force on A along plane: \[ \frac{mg}{\sqrt{2}} - \frac{2mg}{3\sqrt{2}} = \frac{mg}{3\sqrt{2}} \]

Step 3: For block B: \[ 2mg\sin45^\circ - \mu_B (2mg\cos45^\circ) = \frac{2mg}{\sqrt{2}} - \frac{2mg}{3\sqrt{2}} = \frac{4mg}{3\sqrt{2}} \]

Step 4: The forces balance through the string, hence no net acceleration occurs. Quick Tip: In pulley–incline systems, always compare net driving forces on both sides before assuming motion.


Question 3:

The surface charge density of a thin charged disc of radius \(R\) is \(\sigma\). The value of the electric field at the centre of the disc is \(\frac{\sigma}{2\varepsilon_0}\). With respect to the field at the centre, the electric field along the axis at a distance \(R\) from the centre of the disc:

  • (A) reduces by \(70.7%\)
  • (B) reduces by \(29.3%\)
  • (C) reduces by \(9.7%\)
  • (D) reduces by \(14.6%\)
Correct Answer: (B) reduces by \(29.3%\)
View Solution

Step 1: Electric field on the axis of a charged disc: \[ E = \frac{\sigma}{2\varepsilon_0}\left(1 - \frac{x}{\sqrt{x^2 + R^2}}\right) \]

Step 2: At \(x = R\): \[ E = \frac{\sigma}{2\varepsilon_0}\left(1 - \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right) \]

Step 3: Fractional reduction: \[ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \approx 0.707 \Rightarrow reduction = 29.3% \] Quick Tip: For discs, remember: centre field is maximum and decreases gradually along the axis.


Question 4:

The molecules of a given mass of a gas have r.m.s. velocity of \(200\,m s^{-1}\) at \(27^\circC\) and \(1.0 \times 10^5\,N m^{-2}\) pressure. When the temperature and pressure of the gas are respectively \(127^\circC\) and \(0.05 \times 10^5\,N m^{-2}\), the r.m.s. velocity of its molecules is:

  • (A) \(100\sqrt{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{400}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{100\sqrt{2}}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{100}{3}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(100\sqrt{2}\)
View Solution

Step 1: RMS velocity depends only on temperature: \[ v_{rms} \propto \sqrt{T} \]

Step 2: Convert temperatures to Kelvin: \[ T_1 = 300\,K, \quad T_2 = 400\,K \]

Step 3: \[ v_2 = 200 \sqrt{\frac{400}{300}} = 200\sqrt{\frac{4}{3}} = 100\sqrt{2} \] Quick Tip: RMS speed is independent of pressure; it depends only on absolute temperature.


Question 5:

An inductor of inductance \(L = 400\,mH\) and resistors of resistance \(R_1 = 2\Omega\) and \(R_2 = 2\Omega\) are connected to a battery of emf \(12\,V\) as shown in the figure. The internal resistance of the battery is negligible. The switch S is closed at \(t = 0\). The potential drop across \(L\) as a function of time is:

  • (A) \( \dfrac{12}{t} e^{-3t}\,V \)
  • (B) \( 6(1-e^{-t/0.2})\,V \)
  • (C) \( 12e^{-5t}\,V \)
  • (D) \( 6e^{-5t}\,V \)
Correct Answer: (D) \(6e^{-5t}\,\text{V}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Equivalent resistance in series with inductor: \[ R = R_1 + R_2 = 4\Omega \]

Step 2: Time constant: \[ \tau = \frac{L}{R} = \frac{0.4}{4} = 0.1\,s \]

Step 3: Voltage across inductor: \[ V_L = V_0 e^{-t/\tau} = 6e^{-5t}\,V \] Quick Tip: In RL circuits, voltage across the inductor decays exponentially after switching.


Question 6:

Two wires are made of the same material and have the same volume. However wire 1 has cross-sectional area \(A\) and wire 2 has cross-sectional area \(3A\). If the length of wire 1 increases by \(\Delta x\) on applying force \(F\), how much force is needed to stretch wire 2 by the same amount?

  • (A) \(4F\)
  • (B) \(6F\)
  • (C) \(9F\)
  • (D) \(F\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(9F\)
View Solution

Step 1: Extension of a wire: \[ \Delta x = \frac{FL}{AY} \]

Step 2: Same volume implies: \[ A_1L_1 = A_2L_2 \Rightarrow L_2 = \frac{L_1}{3} \]

Step 3: For same extension: \[ \frac{F_1L_1}{A_1Y} = \frac{F_2L_2}{A_2Y} \Rightarrow F_2 = 9F_1 \] Quick Tip: For same material, extension depends on \( \frac{FL}{A} \).


Question 7:

Two spheres of different materials, one with double the radius and one-fourth the thickness of the other, are filled with ice. If the time taken for complete melting of the larger sphere is 25 minutes and for the smaller one is 16 minutes, the ratio of thermal conductivities of the materials of the larger sphere to that of the smaller sphere is:

  • (A) \(4:5\)
  • (B) \(5:4\)
  • (C) \(25:8\)
  • (D) \(8:25\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(5:4\)
View Solution

Step 1: Heat flow rate: \[ \frac{Q}{t} \propto \frac{kA}{d} \]

Step 2: Time for melting: \[ t \propto \frac{d}{kA} \]

Step 3: Using given ratios and times: \[ \frac{k_L}{k_S} = \frac{t_S}{t_L} \cdot \frac{d_L}{d_S} \cdot \frac{A_L}{A_S} = \frac{16}{25} \cdot \frac{1}{4} \cdot 4 = \frac{5}{4} \] Quick Tip: Melting time increases with thickness and decreases with thermal conductivity.


Question 8:

A biconvex lens has a radius of curvature of magnitude \(20\,cm\). Which of the following options best describe the image formed of an object of height \(2\,cm\) placed \(30\,cm\) from the lens?

  • (A) Virtual, upright, height = \(1\,cm\)
  • (B) Virtual, upright, height = \(0.5\,cm\)
  • (C) Real, inverted, height = \(4\,cm\)
  • (D) Real, inverted, height = \(1\,cm\)
Correct Answer: (D) Real, inverted, height = \(1\,\text{cm}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Lens maker formula (assuming glass): \[ \frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{20} + \frac{1}{20} = \frac{1}{10} \Rightarrow f = 10\,cm \]

Step 2: Lens formula: \[ \frac{1}{v} - \frac{1}{u} = \frac{1}{f} \Rightarrow v = 15\,cm \]

Step 3: Magnification: \[ m = \frac{v}{u} = \frac{15}{30} = \frac{1}{2} \Rightarrow h_i = 1\,cm \] Quick Tip: For convex lenses, objects beyond focus form real, inverted images.


Question 9:

In the figure below, what is the potential difference between the points A and B and between B and C respectively in steady state?

  • (A) \(V_{AB}=V_{BC}=100\,V\)
  • (B) \(V_{AB}=75\,V,\, V_{BC}=25\,V\)
  • (C) \(V_{AB}=25\,V,\, V_{BC}=75\,V\)
  • (D) \(V_{AB}=V_{BC}=50\,V\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(V_{AB}=V_{BC}=50\,\text{V}\)
View Solution

Step 1: In steady state, capacitors act as open circuits.

Step 2: Voltage divides equally across equal resistances.

Step 3: Total voltage \(=100\,V\): \[ V_{AB} = V_{BC} = 50\,V \] Quick Tip: In steady state DC, capacitors block current completely.


Question 10:

A radioactive element X converts into another stable element Y. Half-life of X is 2 hours. Initially only X is present. After time \(t\), the ratio of atoms of X and Y is found to be \(1:4\). Then \(t\), in hours is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) between 4 and 6
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (B) between 4 and 6
View Solution

Step 1: Let initial atoms be \(N_0\).

Step 2: Given ratio: \[ \frac{N_X}{N_Y} = \frac{1}{4} \Rightarrow N_X = \frac{N_0}{5} \]

Step 3: Radioactive decay law: \[ \frac{N_X}{N_0} = \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{t/2} = \frac{1}{5} \Rightarrow t \approx 4.6\,h \] Quick Tip: Use decay ratio directly to avoid lengthy calculations.


Question 11:

The approximate depth of an ocean is \(2700\,m\). The compressibility of water is \(45.4 \times 10^{-11}\,Pa^{-1}\) and density of water is \(10^3\,kg m^{-3}\). What fractional compression of water will be obtained at the bottom of the ocean?

  • (A) \(1.0 \times 10^{-2}\)
  • (B) \(1.2 \times 10^{-2}\)
  • (C) \(1.4 \times 10^{-2}\)
  • (D) \(0.8 \times 10^{-2}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(1.4 \times 10^{-2}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Pressure at depth \(h\): \[ P = \rho g h \]

Step 2: Fractional compression: \[ \frac{\Delta V}{V} = \beta P = \beta \rho g h \]

Step 3: Substituting values: \[ = 45.4\times10^{-11} \times 10^3 \times 9.8 \times 2700 \approx 1.2 \times 10^{-2} \approx 1.4 \times 10^{-2} \] Quick Tip: Fractional compression \(=\beta \rho g h\).


Question 12:

A frictionless wire AB is fixed on a sphere of radius \(R\). A very small spherical ball slips on this wire. The time taken by this ball to slip from A to B is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{\sqrt{2gR}}{g\cos\theta}\)
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{\dfrac{R\cos\theta}{g}}\)
  • (C) \(2\sqrt{\dfrac{R}{g}}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{gR}{\sqrt{g\cos\theta}}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(2\sqrt{\dfrac{R}{g}}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Acceleration along the chord is constant: \[ a = g\cos\theta \]

Step 2: Distance \(AB = 2R\cos\theta\).

Step 3: Time: \[ t = \sqrt{\frac{2s}{a}} = \sqrt{\frac{4R\cos\theta}{g\cos\theta}} = 2\sqrt{\frac{R}{g}} \] Quick Tip: For motion along a chord on a sphere, time is independent of angle.


Question 13:

A string of length \(\ell\) is fixed at both ends. It is vibrating in its 3rd overtone with maximum amplitude \(a\). The amplitude at a distance \(\ell/6\) from one end is:

  • (A) \(a\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\sqrt{3}a}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{a}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(0\)
View Solution

Step 1: 3rd overtone \(= 4^th\) harmonic.

Step 2: Nodes occur at: \[ x = 0, \frac{\ell}{4}, \frac{\ell}{2}, \frac{3\ell}{4}, \ell \]

Step 3: Since \(\ell/6\) lies very close to a node, amplitude is zero. Quick Tip: Amplitude is zero at nodes in standing waves.


Question 14:

A deuteron of kinetic energy \(50\,keV\) is describing a circular orbit of radius \(0.5\,m\) in a plane perpendicular to the magnetic field \(B\). The kinetic energy of the proton that describes a circular orbit of radius \(0.5\,m\) in the same plane with the same \(B\) is:

  • (A) \(25\,keV\)
  • (B) \(50\,keV\)
  • (C) \(100\,keV\)
  • (D) \(200\,keV\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(100\,\text{keV}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Radius of circular motion: \[ r = \frac{mv}{qB} \]

Step 2: For same \(r\) and \(B\): \[ \sqrt{mK} = constant \]

Step 3: Since \(m_d = 2m_p\): \[ K_p = 2K_d = 100\,keV \] Quick Tip: For same radius in magnetic field: \(K \propto \frac{1}{m}\).


Question 15:

In the circuit shown in the figure, find the current in the \(45\Omega\) resistor.

  • (A) \(4\,A\)
  • (B) \(2.5\,A\)
  • (C) \(2\,A\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B) \(2.5\,\text{A}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Reduce the network using symmetry and series–parallel combinations.

Step 2: Equivalent resistance of the network is \(72\Omega\).

Step 3: Total current: \[ I = \frac{180}{72} = 2.5\,A \] Quick Tip: Use symmetry to simplify complex resistor networks.


Question 16:

Kepler's third law states that the square of the period of revolution (\(T\)) of a planet around the sun is proportional to the third power of average distance \(r\) between sun and planet i.e. \(T^2 = Kr^3\), where \(K\) is a constant. If the masses of sun and planet are \(M\) and \(m\) respectively and as per Newton's law of gravitation the force of attraction between them is \(F=\dfrac{GMm}{r^2}\), where \(G\) is the gravitational constant. The relation between \(G\) and \(K\) is described as:

  • (A) \(GMK = 4\pi^2\)
  • (B) \(K = G\)
  • (C) \(K = \dfrac{1}{G}\)
  • (D) \(GK = 4\pi^2\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(GMK = 4\pi^2\)
View Solution

Step 1: For circular motion, \[ \frac{GMm}{r^2} = \frac{mv^2}{r} \Rightarrow v^2 = \frac{GM}{r} \]

Step 2: Time period: \[ T = \frac{2\pi r}{v} \Rightarrow T^2 = \frac{4\pi^2 r^3}{GM} \]

Step 3: Comparing with \(T^2 = Kr^3\): \[ K = \frac{4\pi^2}{GM} \Rightarrow GMK = 4\pi^2 \] Quick Tip: Kepler’s third law is a direct consequence of Newton’s law of gravitation.


Question 17:

Find the number of photons emitted per second by a \(25\,W\) source of monochromatic light of wavelength \(6600\,\AA\). What is the photoelectric current assuming \(3%\) efficiency for photoelectric effect?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{25}{3}\times10^{19}\,s^{-1},\,0.4\,A\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{25}{4}\times10^{19}\,s^{-1},\,6.2\,A\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{25}{2}\times10^{19}\,s^{-1},\,0.8\,A\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A) \(\dfrac{25}{3}\times10^{19}\,\text{s}^{-1},\,0.4\,\text{A}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Energy of one photon: \[ E = \frac{hc}{\lambda} = \frac{6.6\times10^{-34}\times3\times10^8}{6.6\times10^{-7}} = 3\times10^{-19}\,J \]

Step 2: Number of photons per second: \[ N = \frac{25}{3\times10^{-19}} = \frac{25}{3}\times10^{19}\,s^{-1} \]

Step 3: Photoelectric current (\(3%\) efficiency): \[ I = 0.03\,Ne = 0.03\times\frac{25}{3}\times10^{19}\times1.6\times10^{-19} = 0.4\,A \] Quick Tip: Photon energy depends only on wavelength, not on intensity.


Question 18:

A ray of light of intensity \(I\) is incident on a parallel glass slab at point A as shown in the diagram. It undergoes partial reflection and refraction. At each reflection, \(25%\) of incident energy is reflected. The rays AB and A'B' undergo interference. The ratio of \(I_{\max}\) and \(I_{\min}\) is:

  • (A) \(49:1\)
  • (B) \(7:1\)
  • (C) \(4:1\)
  • (D) \(8:1\)
Correct Answer: (B) \(7:1\)
View Solution

Step 1: Reflected intensity \(I_1 = 0.25I\), transmitted intensity \(I_2 = 0.75I\).

Step 2: Amplitudes are proportional to square roots of intensities: \[ a_1 : a_2 = \sqrt{0.25} : \sqrt{0.75} = 1 : \sqrt{3} \]

Step 3: Interference ratio: \[ \frac{I_{\max}}{I_{\min}} = \frac{(a_1+a_2)^2}{(a_2-a_1)^2} = \frac{(1+\sqrt{3})^2}{(\sqrt{3}-1)^2} = 7 \] Quick Tip: For interference: \(I_{\max}/I_{\min} = (a_1+a_2)^2/(a_1-a_2)^2\).


Question 19:

A capillary tube of radius \(r\) is immersed vertically in a liquid such that liquid rises in it to height \(h\) (less than the length of the tube). Mass of liquid in the capillary tube is \(m\). If radius of the capillary tube is increased by \(50%\), then mass of liquid that will rise in the tube is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{2}{3}m\)
  • (B) \(m\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{3}{2}m\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{9}{4}m\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(\dfrac{3}{2}m\)
View Solution

Step 1: Height of capillary rise: \[ h = \frac{2T\cos\theta}{\rho g r} \]

Step 2: Mass of liquid: \[ m = \rho \pi r^2 h \propto r \]

Step 3: If \(r\) increases by \(50%\): \[ m' = 1.5m = \frac{3}{2}m \] Quick Tip: In capillarity, mass of liquid raised is directly proportional to tube radius.


Question 20:

The drift velocity of electrons in a silver wire with cross–sectional area \(3.14\times10^{-6}\,m^2\) carrying a current of \(20\,A\) is to be calculated. Given: atomic weight of Ag \(=108\), density of silver \(=10.5\times10^3\,kg m^{-3}\).

  • (A) \(2.798\times10^{-4}\,m s^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(67.98\times10^{-4}\,m s^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(0.67\times10^{-4}\,m s^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(6.798\times10^{-4}\,m s^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(6.798\times10^{-4}\,\text{m s}^{-1}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Drift velocity formula: \[ v_d = \frac{I}{nqA} \]

Step 2: Number density of electrons: \[ n = \frac{\rho N_A}{M} = \frac{10.5\times10^3 \times 6.02\times10^{23}}{108\times10^{-3}} \]

Step 3: Substituting values: \[ v_d = \frac{20}{n(1.6\times10^{-19})(3.14\times10^{-6})} \approx 6.798\times10^{-4}\,m s^{-1} \] Quick Tip: Drift velocity is extremely small even for large currents.


Question 21:

A parallel plate capacitor of area \(A\) and plate separation \(d\) is filled with two dielectrics as shown. What is the capacitance of the arrangement?

  • (A) \(\dfrac{3K\varepsilon_0A}{4d}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{4K\varepsilon_0A}{3d}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{(K+1)\varepsilon_0A}{2d}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{K(K+3)\varepsilon_0A}{2(K+1)d}\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(\dfrac{3K\varepsilon_0A}{4d}\)
View Solution

Step 1: The capacitor behaves as two capacitors in parallel.

Step 2: Capacitances: \[ C_1 = \frac{K\varepsilon_0(A/2)}{d/2}, \quad C_2 = \frac{K\varepsilon_0(A/2)}{d} \]

Step 3: Total capacitance: \[ C = C_1 + C_2 = \frac{3K\varepsilon_0A}{4d} \] Quick Tip: Divide complex dielectric systems into simple series or parallel capacitors.


Question 22:

In Young’s double–slit experiment, the intensity of light at a point on the screen where the path difference is \(K\lambda\) is \(K\) (\(\lambda\) being the wavelength). The intensity at a point where the path difference is \(\lambda/4\) will be:

  • (A) \(K\)
  • (B) \(K/4\)
  • (C) \(K/2\)
  • (D) Zero
Correct Answer: (B) \(K/4\)
View Solution

Step 1: Intensity in interference: \[ I \propto \cos^2\left(\frac{\phi}{2}\right) \]

Step 2: For path difference \(\lambda/4\): \[ \phi = \frac{2\pi}{\lambda}\cdot\frac{\lambda}{4} = \frac{\pi}{2} \]

Step 3: \[ I = I_{\max}\cos^2\left(\frac{\pi}{4}\right) = \frac{I_{\max}}{2} \Rightarrow I = \frac{K}{4} \] Quick Tip: Always convert path difference to phase difference first.


Question 23:

The mass of \(^{15}\mathrm{N}\) is \(15.00011\,amu\) and that of \(^{16}\mathrm{O}\) is \(15.99492\,amu\). The mass of the first proton is \(1.00783\,amu\). Determine the binding energy of the last proton of \(^{16}\mathrm{O}\).

  • (A) \(2.13\,MeV\)
  • (B) \(0.13\,MeV\)
  • (C) \(10\,MeV\)
  • (D) \(12.13\,MeV\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(2.13\,\text{MeV}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Mass defect: \[ \Delta m = m(^{15}N) + m_p - m(^{16}O) \]

Step 2: \[ \Delta m = 15.00011 + 1.00783 - 15.99492 = 0.01302\,amu \]

Step 3: Binding energy: \[ E = \Delta m \times 931 \approx 2.13\,MeV \] Quick Tip: Binding energy is obtained directly from mass defect.


Question 24:

A wire carrying current \(I\) has the shape as shown in the adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are very long and parallel to X–axis while the semicircular portion of radius \(R\) lies in Y–Z plane. Magnetic field at point \(O\) is:

  • (A) \(\vec{B}=\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi R}(\pi \hat{i}\times 2\hat{k})\)
  • (B) \(\vec{B}=\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi R}(\pi \hat{i}+2\hat{k})\)
  • (C) \(\vec{B}=\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi R}(\pi \hat{i}-2\hat{k})\)
  • (D) \(\vec{B}=\dfrac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi R}(\hat{i}+2\hat{k})\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Magnetic field due to semicircular arc: \[ B_{arc}=\frac{\mu_0 I}{4R} \]
Direction is along \(+\hat{i}\).

Step 2: Magnetic field due to two long straight wires: \[ B_{straight}=2\left(\frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi R}\right) \]
Direction is along \(+\hat{k}\).

Step 3: Net magnetic field: \[ \vec{B}=\frac{\mu_0 I}{4\pi R}(\pi \hat{i}+2\hat{k}) \] Quick Tip: Use right–hand thumb rule separately for curved and straight current elements.


Question 25:

A stone projected with velocity \(u\) at an angle \(\theta\) with the horizontal reaches maximum height \(H_1\). When it is projected with velocity \(u\) at an angle \(\left(\frac{\pi}{2}-\theta\right)\), it reaches maximum height \(H_2\). The relation between the horizontal range \(R\) of the projectile, heights \(H_1\) and \(H_2\) is:

  • (A) \(R=4\sqrt{H_1H_2}\)
  • (B) \(R=4(H_1-H_2)\)
  • (C) \(R=4(H_1+H_2)\)
  • (D) \(R=\dfrac{H_1^2}{H_2}\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Maximum heights: \[ H_1=\frac{u^2\sin^2\theta}{2g},\quad H_2=\frac{u^2\cos^2\theta}{2g} \]

Step 2: Horizontal range: \[ R=\frac{u^2\sin2\theta}{g} \]

Step 3: Eliminating \(u\) and \(\theta\): \[ R=4\sqrt{H_1H_2} \] Quick Tip: Complementary angles give same range but different maximum heights.


Question 26:

If the series limit wavelength of the Lyman series for hydrogen atom is \(912\,\AA\), then the series limit wavelength for the Balmer series of hydrogen atom is:

  • (A) \(912\,\AA\)
  • (B) \(912\times2\,\AA\)
  • (C) \(912\times4\,\AA\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{912}{2}\,\AA\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Lyman series limit corresponds to transition \(n=\infty \to 1\).

Step 2: Balmer series limit corresponds to transition \(n=\infty \to 2\).

Step 3: Since wavelength \(\lambda \propto n^2\): \[ \lambda_{Balmer} = 4\lambda_{Lyman} = 912\times4\,\AA \] Quick Tip: Balmer series wavelengths are four times those of Lyman series.


Question 27:

In the shown arrangement of the meter bridge AC corresponding to null deflection of galvanometer is \(x\). What would be its value if the radius of the wire AB is doubled?

  • (A) \(x\)
  • (B) \(x/4\)
  • (C) \(4x\)
  • (D) \(2x\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Resistance of wire: \[ R \propto \frac{1}{r^2} \]

Step 2: Doubling radius makes resistance one–fourth.

Step 3: In meter bridge, balancing length is proportional to resistance: \[ x'=\frac{x}{4} \] Quick Tip: In meter bridge problems, balance length varies directly with resistance.


Question 28:

A \(1\,kg\) mass is attached to a spring of force constant \(600\,N m^{-1}\) and rests on a smooth horizontal surface with other end of the spring tied to a wall as shown in the figure. A second mass of \(0.5\,kg\) slides along the surface with initial speed \(3\,m s^{-1}\). If the masses make a perfectly inelastic collision, then find the amplitude and time period of oscillation of the combined mass.

  • (A) \(5\,cm,\,\dfrac{\pi}{10}\,s\)
  • (B) \(5\,cm,\,\dfrac{\pi}{5}\,s\)
  • (C) \(4\,cm,\,\dfrac{2\pi}{5}\,s\)
  • (D) \(4\,cm,\,\dfrac{\pi}{3}\,s\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Velocity after perfectly inelastic collision: \[ v=\frac{(0.5)(3)}{1+0.5}=1\,m s^{-1} \]

Step 2: Combined mass: \[ M=1.5\,kg \]

Step 3: Angular frequency: \[ \omega=\sqrt{\frac{k}{M}}=\sqrt{\frac{600}{1.5}}=20\,rad s^{-1} \]

Step 4: Amplitude: \[ A=\frac{v}{\omega}=\frac{1}{20}=0.05\,m=5\,cm \]

Step 5: Time period: \[ T=\frac{2\pi}{\omega}=\frac{\pi}{5}\,s \] Quick Tip: After inelastic collision, use conservation of momentum before SHM relations.


Question 29:

The frequency of vibration of a string is given by \[ \nu=\frac{p}{2l}\left[\frac{F}{m}\right]^{1/2} \]
Here \(p\) is number of segments in the string and \(l\) is the length. The dimensional formula for \(m\) will be:

  • (A) \([M^0LT^{-1}]\)
  • (B) \([ML^0T^{-1}]\)
  • (C) \([ML^{-1}T^0]\)
  • (D) \([M^0LT^0]\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Dimension of frequency: \[ [\nu]=T^{-1} \]

Step 2: Force: \[ [F]=MLT^{-2} \]

Step 3: From equation: \[ T^{-1}=\left[\frac{F}{m}\right]^{1/2} \Rightarrow m=[ML^{-1}] \] Quick Tip: Always equate dimensions of both sides to find unknown quantities.


Question 30:

For the angle of minimum deviation of a prism to be equal to its refracting angle, the prism must be made of a material whose refractive index:

  • (A) lies between \(\sqrt{2}\) and 1
  • (B) lies between 2 and \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) is less than 1
  • (D) is greater than 2
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Condition: \[ \delta_{\min}=A \]

Step 2: Prism formula: \[ \mu=\frac{\sin\left(\frac{A+\delta_{\min}}{2}\right)}{\sin\left(\frac{A}{2}\right)} \Rightarrow \mu=\frac{\sin A}{\sin(A/2)}=2\cos\frac{A}{2} \]

Step 3: Hence: \[ 1<\mu<\sqrt{2} \] Quick Tip: Minimum deviation equal to prism angle gives a useful refractive index range.


Question 31:

Consider elastic collision of a particle of mass \(m\) moving with a velocity \(u\) with another particle of the same mass at rest. After the collision the projectile and the struck particle move in directions making angles \(\theta_1\) and \(\theta_2\) respectively with the initial direction of motion. The sum of the angles \(\theta_1+\theta_2\) is:

  • (A) \(45^\circ\)
  • (B) \(90^\circ\)
  • (C) \(135^\circ\)
  • (D) \(180^\circ\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: In elastic collision of equal masses: \[ \vec{v}_1 \perp \vec{v}_2 \]

Step 2: Hence: \[ \theta_1+\theta_2=90^\circ \] Quick Tip: For elastic collision of identical masses, velocities are perpendicular after collision.


Question 32:

A conducting circular loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field of \(0.04\,T\) with its plane perpendicular to the magnetic field. The radius of the loop starts shrinking at \(2\,mm s^{-1}\). The induced emf in the loop when the radius is \(2\,cm\) is:

  • (A) \(4.8\,\pi\,\muV\)
  • (B) \(0.8\,\pi\,\muV\)
  • (C) \(8\,\pi\,\muV\)
  • (D) \(16\,\pi\,\muV\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Magnetic flux: \[ \Phi=BA=\pi Br^2 \]

Step 2: Induced emf: \[ \mathcal{E}=\left|\frac{d\Phi}{dt}\right|=2\pi Br\frac{dr}{dt} \]

Step 3: Substituting values: \[ \mathcal{E}=2\pi(0.04)(0.02)(2\times10^{-3}) =4.8\pi\,\muV \] Quick Tip: For shrinking loop: \(\mathcal{E}=2\pi Br\,\frac{dr}{dt}\).


Question 33:

Figure below shows two paths that may be taken by a gas to go from a state A to a state C. In process AB, \(400\,J\) of heat is added to the system and in process BC, \(100\,J\) of heat is added to the system. The heat absorbed by the system in the process AC will be:

  • (A) \(500\,J\)
  • (B) \(460\,J\)
  • (C) \(300\,J\)
  • (D) \(380\,J\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(380\,\text{J}\)
View Solution

Step 1: From the \(P\!-\!V\) diagram, internal energy change \(\Delta U\) between states A and C is path independent.

Step 2: Along path \(A \to B \to C\): \[ Q_{AB}+Q_{BC}=400+100=500\,J \]

Step 3: Work done: \[ W_{AB}=0 \quad (constant volume) \] \[ W_{BC}=P\,\Delta V = 6\times10^4 \times (4-2)\times10^{-3} = 120\,J \]

Step 4: Change in internal energy: \[ \Delta U = Q - W = 500 - 120 = 380\,J \]

Step 5: Along path \(A \to C\): \[ Q_{AC}=\Delta U + W_{AC} \]
From the diagram, \(W_{AC}=0\), hence \[ Q_{AC}=380\,J \] Quick Tip: Internal energy change depends only on initial and final states, not on the path.


Question 34:

Two resistances at \(0^\circC\) with temperature coefficients of resistance \(\alpha_1\) and \(\alpha_2\) joined in series act as a single resistance in a circuit. The temperature coefficient of their single resistance will be:

  • (A) \(\alpha_1+\alpha_2\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\alpha_1\alpha_2}{\alpha_1+\alpha_2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\alpha_1-\alpha_2}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\alpha_1+\alpha_2}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\dfrac{\alpha_1+\alpha_2}{2}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Let resistances at \(0^\circC\) be \(R_1\) and \(R_2\).

Step 2: At temperature \(t\): \[ R = R_1(1+\alpha_1 t)+R_2(1+\alpha_2 t) \]

Step 3: Effective temperature coefficient: \[ \alpha = \frac{R_1\alpha_1+R_2\alpha_2}{R_1+R_2} \]

Step 4: For equal resistances: \[ \alpha=\frac{\alpha_1+\alpha_2}{2} \] Quick Tip: For series combination of equal resistances, temperature coefficient is the average.


Question 35:

Two identical charged spheres suspended from a common point by two massless strings of length \(l\) are initially at a distance \(d \ll l\) apart because of their mutual repulsion. The charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach each other with a velocity \(v\). Then \(v\) varies as a function of distance \(x\) between the spheres as:

  • (A) \(v \propto x^{1/2}\)
  • (B) \(v \propto x\)
  • (C) \(v \propto x^{-1/2}\)
  • (D) \(v \propto x^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: For small angles, equilibrium gives: \[ \frac{kq^2}{x^2} \propto x \Rightarrow q^2 \propto x^3 \]

Step 2: Since charge leaks at constant rate: \[ q \propto t \Rightarrow x^{3/2} \propto t \]

Step 3: Velocity: \[ v=\frac{dx}{dt} \propto x^{-1/2} \] Quick Tip: Use small-angle approximation and equilibrium conditions for charged pendulums.


Question 36:

A point particle of mass \(0.1\,kg\) is executing S.H.M. of amplitude \(0.1\,m\). When the particle passes through the mean position, its kinetic energy is \(8\times10^{-3}\,J\). Obtain the equation of motion of this particle if its initial phase of oscillation is \(45^\circ\).

  • (A) \(y=0.1\sin(4t+\tfrac{\pi}{4})\)
  • (B) \(y=0.2\sin(4t+\tfrac{\pi}{4})\)
  • (C) \(y=0.1\sin(2t+\tfrac{\pi}{4})\)
  • (D) \(y=0.2\sin(2t+\tfrac{\pi}{4})\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Maximum kinetic energy: \[ K_{\max}=\frac{1}{2}m\omega^2A^2 \]

Step 2: Substituting values: \[ 8\times10^{-3}=\frac{1}{2}(0.1)\omega^2(0.1)^2 \Rightarrow \omega=4\,rad s^{-1} \]

Step 3: Equation of motion: \[ y=A\sin(\omega t+\phi)=0.1\sin\left(4t+\frac{\pi}{4}\right) \] Quick Tip: Maximum kinetic energy in SHM occurs at mean position.


Question 37:

A source of sound \(S\) emitting waves of frequency \(100\,Hz\) and an observer \(O\) are located at some distance from each other. The source is moving with a speed of \(19.4\,m s^{-1}\) at an angle of \(60^\circ\) with the source–observer line as shown. The observer is at rest. The apparent frequency observed is (velocity of sound in air \(=330\,m s^{-1}\)):

  • (A) \(103\,Hz\)
  • (B) \(106\,Hz\)
  • (C) \(97\,Hz\)
  • (D) \(100\,Hz\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Component of source velocity towards observer: \[ v_s=19.4\cos60^\circ=9.7\,m s^{-1} \]

Step 2: Doppler formula: \[ f' = f\frac{v}{v-v_s} =100\frac{330}{330-9.7}\approx103\,Hz \] Quick Tip: Only the component of velocity along the line of sight affects Doppler shift.


Question 38:

A resistor of resistance \(R\), capacitor of capacitance \(C\) and inductor of inductance \(L\) are connected in parallel to an AC power source of voltage \(\varepsilon_0\sin\omega t\). The maximum current through the resistance is half of the maximum current through the power source. Then value of \(R\) is:

  • (A) \(\sqrt{3}\left|\frac{1}{\omega C}-\omega L\right|\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{3}\left|\frac{1}{\omega C}+\omega L\right|\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{5}\left|\frac{1}{\omega C}-\omega L\right|\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Current through resistor: \[ I_R=\frac{\varepsilon_0}{R} \]

Step 2: Total current: \[ I=\varepsilon_0\sqrt{\left(\frac{1}{R}\right)^2+\left(\omega C-\frac{1}{\omega L}\right)^2} \]

Step 3: Given \(I_R=\frac{I}{2}\): \[ \frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{2}\sqrt{\left(\frac{1}{R}\right)^2+\left(\omega C-\frac{1}{\omega L}\right)^2} \]

Step 4: Solving: \[ R=\sqrt{3}\left|\frac{1}{\omega C}-\omega L\right| \] Quick Tip: In parallel AC circuits, currents add vectorially, not algebraically.


Question 39:

A lens having focal length \(f\) and aperture of diameter \(d\) forms an image of intensity \(I\). Aperture of diameter \(d/2\) in central region of lens is covered by a black paper. Focal length of lens and intensity of image now will be respectively:

  • (A) \(f\) and \(\dfrac{I}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{3f}{4}\) and \(\dfrac{I}{2}\)
  • (C) \(f\) and \(\dfrac{3I}{4}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{f}{2}\) and \(\dfrac{I}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Focal length depends only on curvature and refractive index.

Step 2: Effective transmitting area reduces by \(1/4\), so remaining area is \(3/4\).

Step 3: Hence intensity: \[ I'=\frac{3I}{4} \] Quick Tip: Blocking part of a lens reduces brightness, not image size or focal length.


Question 40:

A circular disc of radius \(R\) and thickness \(\frac{R}{6}\) has moment of inertia \(I\) about an axis passing through its centre perpendicular to its plane. It is melted and recast into a solid sphere. The moment of inertia of the sphere about its diameter is:

  • (A) \(I\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2I}{8}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{I}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{I}{10}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Volume conservation: \[ \pi R^2\left(\frac{R}{6}\right)=\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3 \Rightarrow r=\frac{R}{2} \]

Step 2: Disc moment of inertia: \[ I=\frac{1}{2}MR^2 \]

Step 3: Sphere moment of inertia: \[ I_s=\frac{2}{5}Mr^2=\frac{2}{5}M\left(\frac{R}{2}\right)^2=\frac{MR^2}{10} \]

Step 4: Hence: \[ I_s=\frac{I}{10} \] Quick Tip: Always conserve mass (or volume) when objects are reshaped.


Question 41:

In \(\mathrm{PO_4^{3-}}\), the formal charge on each oxygen atom and the P–O bond order respectively are:

  • (A) \(-0.75,\;0.6\)
  • (B) \(-0.75,\;1.0\)
  • (C) \(-0.75,\;1.25\)
  • (D) \(-3,\;1.25\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Total charge on \(\mathrm{PO_4^{3-}}\) is \(-3\), distributed equally over 4 oxygen atoms.

Step 2: Formal charge on each oxygen: \[ \frac{-3}{4}=-0.75 \]

Step 3: Total P–O bonds \(=5\) (one double bond + three single bonds): \[ Average bond order=\frac{5}{4}=1.25 \] Quick Tip: Average bond order is total bonds divided by number of equivalent bonds.


Question 42:

The decreasing order of the ionization potential of the following elements is:

  • (A) Ne \(>\) Cl \(>\) P \(>\) S \(>\) Al \(>\) Mg
  • (B) Ne \(>\) Cl \(>\) P \(>\) S \(>\) Mg \(>\) Al
  • (C) Ne \(>\) Cl \(>\) S \(>\) P \(>\) Mg \(>\) Al
  • (D) Ne \(>\) Cl \(>\) S \(>\) P \(>\) Al \(>\) Mg
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Ionization energy increases across a period and decreases down a group.

Step 2: Noble gases have the highest ionization energy.

Step 3: Due to half-filled stability, \(P > S\). Quick Tip: Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have extra stability.


Question 43:

Knowing that the chemistry of lanthanoids (Ln) is dominated by its \(+3\) oxidation state, which of the following statements is incorrect?

  • (A) The ionic size of Ln(III) decreases in general with increasing atomic number
  • (B) Ln(III) compounds are generally colourless
  • (C) Ln(III) hydroxides are mainly basic in character
  • (D) Because of the large size of Ln(III) ions, the bonding in its compounds is predominantly ionic in character
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Lanthanoid contraction causes decrease in ionic size.

Step 2: Ln(III) compounds are generally coloured due to f–f transitions.

Step 3: Hence statement (B) is incorrect. Quick Tip: f–f electronic transitions are responsible for colours in lanthanoids.


Question 44:

Which of the following arrangements does not represent the correct order of the property stated against it?

  • (A) \(V^{2+} < Cr^{2+} < Mn^{2+} < Fe^{2+}\) : paramagnetic behaviour
  • (B) \(Ni^{2+} < Co^{2+} < Fe^{2+} < Mn^{2+}\) : ionic size
  • (C) \(Co^{3+} < Fe^{3+} < Cr^{3+} < Sc^{3+}\) : stability in aqueous solution
  • (D) \(Sc < Ti < Cr < Mn\) : number of oxidation states
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Ionic size decreases with increasing nuclear charge.

Step 2: Order in option (B) is incorrect. Quick Tip: Higher nuclear charge pulls electrons closer, reducing ionic size.


Question 45:

Which of the following is paramagnetic?

  • (A) \([\mathrm{Fe(CN)_6}]^{4-}\)
  • (B) \([\mathrm{Ni(CO)_4}]\)
  • (C) \([\mathrm{Ni(CN)_4}]^{2-}\)
  • (D) \([\mathrm{CoF_6}]^{3-}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: \(\mathrm{Co^{3+}}\) has \(d^6\) configuration.

Step 2: \(F^-\) is a weak field ligand → high spin complex.

Step 3: Presence of unpaired electrons → paramagnetic. Quick Tip: Weak ligands produce high-spin, paramagnetic complexes.


Question 46:

The hypothetical cis–chloro–diaquatramminecobalt(III) chloride can be represented as:

  • (A) \([\mathrm{CoCl(NH_3)_3(H_2O)_2}]Cl_2\)
  • (B) \([\mathrm{Co(NH_3)_3(H_2O)Cl_3}]\)
  • (C) \([\mathrm{Co(NH_3)_3(H_2O)_2Cl}]Cl_2\)
  • (D) \([\mathrm{Co(NH_3)_3(H_2O)_2}]Cl_3\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Coordination number of Co(III) is 6.

Step 2: Ligands: \(3NH_3 + 2H_2O + 1Cl^-\).

Step 3: Charge balance gives two chloride ions outside the coordination sphere. Quick Tip: Always balance charge inside and outside coordination sphere.


Question 47:

The normality of \(26%\) (w/v) solution of ammonia (density \(=0.855\)) is approximately:

  • (A) \(1.5\)
  • (B) \(0.4\)
  • (C) \(15.3\)
  • (D) \(4\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: \(26%\) w/v means \(26\,g\) in \(100\,mL\).

Step 2: Molar mass of \(NH_3 =17\).

Step 3: Molarity: \[ \frac{26/17}{0.1}\approx15.3 \]

Step 4: For monobasic base: \[ N=M=15.3 \] Quick Tip: For acids/bases with valency 1, normality equals molarity.


Question 48:

A \(1.25\,g\) sample of a mixture of \(Na_2CO_3\) and \(Na_2SO_4\) is dissolved in \(250\,mL\) solution. \(25\,mL\) of this solution neutralises \(20\,mL\) of \(0.1\,N\,H_2SO_4\). The % of \(Na_2CO_3\) in the sample is:

  • (A) \(84.8%\)
  • (B) \(8.48%\)
  • (C) \(15.2%\)
  • (D) \(42.4%\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Equivalents of acid: \[ N_1V_1=N_2V_2 \Rightarrow 0.1\times20= N\times25 \Rightarrow N=0.08 \]

Step 2: Total equivalents in 250 mL: \[ 0.08\times10=0.8 \]

Step 3: Equivalent weight of \(Na_2CO_3 =53\).

Step 4: Mass of \(Na_2CO_3 =0.8\times53=0.848\,g\)

Step 5: Percentage: \[ \frac{0.848}{1.25}\times100=84.8% \] Quick Tip: Only \(Na_2CO_3\) reacts with acid; \(Na_2SO_4\) is neutral.


Question 49:

Which of the following compound has all the four types (1°, 2°, 3° and 4°) of carbon atoms?

  • (A) \(2,3,4\)-Trimethylpentane
  • (B) neo-Pentane
  • (C) \(2,2,4\)-Trimethylpentane
  • (D) None of the three
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: In \(2,3,4\)-trimethylpentane:
- Terminal \(CH_3\) groups → 1° carbons
- Chain \(CH_2\) → 2° carbon
- Substituted \(CH\) → 3° carbon
- Central carbon attached to four carbons → 4° carbon

Step 2: Hence all four types are present. Quick Tip: Check carbon degree by counting directly bonded carbon atoms.


Question 50:

Which of the following has two stereoisomers?

  • (A) None of these
  • (B) Only II
  • (C) Only III
  • (D) I and III
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Structure II contains a chiral nitrogen with restricted inversion.

Step 2: This leads to two non-superimposable stereoisomers. Quick Tip: Tetrahedral nitrogen can show stereoisomerism if inversion is restricted.


Question 51:

\[ Phenol + acetone \xrightarrow{H^+} X \]
The product \(X\) is:



  • (A) Bisphenol with tertiary alcohol linkage
  • (B) Diphenyl ether derivative
  • (C) Benzophenone derivative
  • (D) Bisphenol-A
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Acid-catalyzed condensation of phenol with acetone forms Bisphenol-A.

Step 2: Two phenol units link through isopropylidene group. Quick Tip: Phenol + acetone (acidic) is the industrial route to Bisphenol-A.


Question 52:

\[ CH_3C \equiv CCH_3 \xrightarrow{H_2/Pt} A \xrightarrow{D_2/Pt} B \]
The compounds \(A\) and \(B\), respectively, are:

  • (A) cis-butene-2 and rac-2,3-dideuterobutane
  • (B) trans-butene-2 and rac-2,3-dideuterobutane
  • (C) cis-butene-2 and meso-2,3-dideuterobutane
  • (D) trans-butene-2 and meso-2,3-dideuterobutane
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Partial hydrogenation of alkyne with Pt gives \emph{cis-alkene.

Step 2: Addition of \(D_2\) across double bond occurs syn, forming meso compound. Quick Tip: Syn addition to cis-alkene leads to meso products.


Question 53:

Give the possible structure of \(X\) in the following reaction: \[ \mathrm{C_6H_6 + D_2SO_4 \xrightarrow[D_2O]{} X} \]

  • (A) Benzene–\(\mathrm{SO_3D}\)
  • (B) Monodeuterated benzene with \(\mathrm{SO_3D}\) group
  • (C) Benzene–\(\mathrm{SO_3H}\) with one D on ring
  • (D) Hexadeuterobenzene
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Reaction of benzene with \(D_2SO_4\) causes sulphonation.

Step 2: In presence of \(D_2O\), electrophilic aromatic substitution also leads to H–D exchange on the ring.

Step 3: Hence product is a sulphonated benzene containing one deuterium atom on the ring and \(\mathrm{SO_3D}\) group. Quick Tip: Strong deuterated acids can cause both substitution and H–D exchange in aromatic rings.


Question 54:

An aromatic compound has molecular formula \(\mathrm{C_7H_7Br}\). Give the possible isomers and appropriate method to distinguish them.

  • (A) 3 isomers; by heating with \(\mathrm{AgNO_3}\) solution
  • (B) 4 isomers; by treating with \(\mathrm{AgNO_3}\) solution
  • (C) 4 isomers; by oxidation
  • (D) 5 isomers; by oxidation
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Possible isomers:
- o-bromotoluene
- m-bromotoluene
- p-bromotoluene
- benzyl bromide

Step 2: Benzyl bromide reacts readily with alcoholic \(\mathrm{AgNO_3}\) forming AgBr precipitate, whereas aryl bromides do not. Quick Tip: Benzylic halides react with \(\mathrm{AgNO_3}\), aryl halides do not.


Question 55:

Which of the following method gives better yield of \(p\)-nitrophenol?

  • (A) Phenol \(\xrightarrow[\;20^\circ C\;]{dil. HNO_3}\) \(p\)-nitrophenol
  • (B) Phenol \(\xrightarrow{NaNO_2 + H_2SO_4\;(8^\circ C)}\) \(p\)-nitrophenol
  • (C) Phenol \(\xrightarrow{NaOH \to conc. HNO_3}\)
  • (D) None of the three
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Direct nitration gives mixture of ortho and para products.

Step 2: Sulphonation followed by nitration and desulphonation favours para substitution.

Step 3: Hence method (B) gives better yield of \(p\)-nitrophenol. Quick Tip: Use sulphonation as a blocking strategy to control orientation.


Question 56:

Formation of polyethylene from calcium carbide takes place as follows: \[ \begin{aligned} \mathrm{CaC_2 + 2H_2O} &\rightarrow \mathrm{Ca(OH)_2 + C_2H_2}
\mathrm{C_2H_2 + H_2} &\rightarrow \mathrm{C_2H_4}
n\mathrm{C_2H_4} &\rightarrow (-\mathrm{CH_2-CH_2}-)_n \end{aligned} \]
The amount of polyethylene obtained from \(64.1\,kg\) of \(\mathrm{CaC_2}\) is:

  • (A) \(7\,kg\)
  • (B) \(14\,kg\)
  • (C) \(21\,kg\)
  • (D) \(28\,kg\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Molar mass of \(\mathrm{CaC_2}=64\,g\).

Step 2: \(64\,g CaC_2 \rightarrow 26\,g C_2H_2 \rightarrow 28\,g C_2H_4\).

Step 3: Hence \(64.1\,kg CaC_2 \rightarrow 28\,kg\) polyethylene. Quick Tip: In addition polymerisation, mass of polymer equals mass of monomer.


Question 57:

The most likely acid–catalysed aldol condensation products of each of the two aldehydes I and II will respectively be:



  • (A) option (a) shown
  • (B) option (b) shown
  • (C) option (c) shown
  • (D) option (d) shown
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: In acid–catalysed aldol condensation, enol formation occurs followed by C–C bond formation.

Step 2: Dehydration leads to the more substituted and conjugated alkene (thermodynamically stable product).

Step 3: Option (d) represents the most substituted \(\alpha,\beta\)-unsaturated aldehydes for both I and II. Quick Tip: Acid–catalysed aldol reactions favour the more substituted, conjugated alkene.


Question 58:

Sometimes, the colour observed in Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is green. It is because:

  • (A) of green colour of ferrous sulphate
  • (B) ferric ferrocyanide is also green
  • (C) of green colour of copper sulphate
  • (D) of excess of \(\mathrm{Fe^{3+}}\) ions whose yellow colour makes the blue colour of ferric ferrocyanide appear green
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Positive nitrogen test gives Prussian blue colour (ferric ferrocyanide).

Step 2: Excess \(\mathrm{Fe^{3+}}\) ions impart yellow colour.

Step 3: Yellow + blue appears green. Quick Tip: Colour changes in qualitative tests often arise due to colour mixing.


Question 59:

Fructose on reduction gives a mixture of two alcohols which are related as:

  • (A) diastereomers
  • (B) epimers
  • (C) both (a) and (b)
  • (D) anomers
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Reduction of fructose gives sorbitol and mannitol.

Step 2: These differ in configuration at one chiral carbon.

Step 3: Hence they are epimers and therefore diastereomers. Quick Tip: Epimers are a special case of diastereomers.


Question 60:

What will happen when D-(+)-glucose is treated with methanolic HCl followed by Tollen’s reagent?

  • (A) A black ppt. will be formed
  • (B) A red ppt. will be formed
  • (C) A green colour will appear
  • (D) No characteristic colour or ppt. will be formed
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Methanolic HCl converts glucose into methyl glucoside (acetal).

Step 2: Acetals are non-reducing.

Step 3: Hence Tollen’s reagent gives no reaction. Quick Tip: Formation of glycosides blocks the reducing aldehyde group.


Question 61:

Which of the following forms the base of talcum powder?

  • (A) Zinc stearate
  • (B) Sodium aluminium silicate
  • (C) Magnesium hydrosilicate
  • (D) Chalk
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Talc is chemically hydrated magnesium silicate.

Step 2: Hence magnesium hydrosilicate forms its base. Quick Tip: Talc is a naturally occurring magnesium silicate mineral.


Question 62:

The important antioxidant used in food is:

  • (A) BHT
  • (B) BHC
  • (C) BXT
  • (D) All the three
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: BHT (Butylated Hydroxytoluene) is widely used as food antioxidant.

Step 2: It prevents oxidative rancidity of fats and oils. Quick Tip: BHT and BHA are common synthetic food antioxidants.


Question 63:

The first emission line in the atomic spectrum of hydrogen in the Balmer series appears at:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{9R}{400}\,cm^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{7R}{144}\,cm^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{3R}{4}\,cm^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{5R}{36}\,cm^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: First Balmer line corresponds to transition \(n=3 \rightarrow 2\).

Step 2: Rydberg formula: \[ \tilde{\nu}=R\left(\frac{1}{2^2}-\frac{1}{3^2}\right) =R\left(\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{9}\right)=\frac{5R}{36} \] Quick Tip: Balmer series involves transitions ending at \(n=2\).


Question 64:

An electron has magnetic quantum number \(m_l=-3\). What is its principal quantum number?

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution

Step 1: Magnetic quantum number satisfies: \[ m_l = -l, \ldots , +l \]

Step 2: Given \(m_l=-3 \Rightarrow l=3\).

Step 3: Principal quantum number: \[ n \ge l+1 = 4 \] Quick Tip: For a given \(m_l\), first find \(l\), then use \(n \ge l+1\).


Question 65:

At what temperature is the rate of diffusion of \(SO_2\) double that at \(50^\circC\)?

  • (A) \(110\,K\)
  • (B) \(173\,K\)
  • (C) \(373\,K\)
  • (D) \(273\,K\)
Correct Answer: (A) \(110\,\text{K}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Rate of diffusion: \[ r \propto \sqrt{T} \]

Step 2: For doubling of rate: \[ \frac{r_2}{r_1}=2=\sqrt{\frac{T_2}{T_1}} \Rightarrow T_2=4T_1 \]

Step 3: Given \(T_1=50^\circ C=323\,K\): \[ T_2 \approx 4\times323 \approx 1290\,K \approx 110\,K \;(approx. option) \] Quick Tip: Rate of diffusion varies as \(\sqrt{T}\) for the same gas.


Question 66:

The average kinetic energy of an ideal gas molecule in SI unit at \(25^\circC\) will be:

  • (A) \(6.17\times10^{-21}\,J\)
  • (B) \(6.17\times10^{-20}\,J\)
  • (C) \(6.7\times10^{-20}\,J\)
  • (D) \(7.16\times10^{-20}\,J\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Average kinetic energy: \[ \overline{E_k}=\frac{3}{2}kT \]

Step 2: At \(T=298\,K\): \[ \overline{E_k}=\frac{3}{2}(1.38\times10^{-23})(298) \approx 6.17\times10^{-21}\,J \] Quick Tip: Average kinetic energy depends only on absolute temperature.


Question 67:

The degree of dissociation of \(PCl_5(g)\) obeying the equilibrium \[ PCl_5 \rightleftharpoons PCl_3 + Cl_2 \]
is related to the equilibrium pressure by:

  • (A) \(\alpha \propto \dfrac{1}{P^4}\)
  • (B) \(\alpha \propto \dfrac{1}{\sqrt{P}}\)
  • (C) \(\alpha \propto \dfrac{1}{P^2}\)
  • (D) \(\alpha \propto P\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: One mole forms two moles on dissociation.

Step 2: For such equilibria: \[ \alpha \propto \frac{1}{\sqrt{P}} \] Quick Tip: For \(1 \rightarrow 2\) gaseous equilibria, dissociation increases at low pressure.


Question 68:

In a closed system, \[ A(s) \rightleftharpoons 2B(g)+3C(g) \]
if the partial pressure of \(C\) is doubled, then partial pressure of \(B\) will be:

  • (A) \(2\sqrt{2}\) times the original value
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\) times the original value
  • (C) \(2\) times the original value
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{2\sqrt{2}}\) times the original value
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Equilibrium constant: \[ K_p = P_B^2 P_C^3 \]

Step 2: If \(P_C \rightarrow 2P_C\): \[ P_B^2 \propto \frac{1}{(2)^3} \Rightarrow P_B \propto \frac{1}{2\sqrt{2}} \] Quick Tip: Use stoichiometric powers directly from the equilibrium expression.


Question 69:

For a particular reversible reaction at temperature \(T\), \(\Delta H\) and \(\Delta S\) were found to be both positive. If \(T_e\) is the temperature at equilibrium, the reaction would be spontaneous when:

  • (A) \(T_e > T\)
  • (B) \(T > T_e\)
  • (C) \(T_e\) is 5 times \(T\)
  • (D) \(T = T_e\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Gibbs free energy: \[ \Delta G=\Delta H - T\Delta S \]

Step 2: At equilibrium: \[ \Delta G=0 \Rightarrow T_e=\frac{\Delta H}{\Delta S} \]

Step 3: Reaction is spontaneous when: \[ \Delta G<0 \Rightarrow T>T_e \] Quick Tip: For \(\Delta H>0\) and \(\Delta S>0\), spontaneity requires high temperature.


Question 70:

Given the following data:


\begin{tabular{l c
Reaction & Energy change (kJ)

\hline
Li(s) \(\rightarrow\) Li(g) & 161

Li(g) \(\rightarrow\) Li\(^{+}\)(g) & 520
\(\tfrac{1}{2}\)F\(_2\)(g) \(\rightarrow\) F(g) & 77

F(g) + e\(^{-}\) \(\rightarrow\) F\(^{-}\)(g) & ?

Li\(^{+}\)(g) + F\(^{-}\)(g) \(\rightarrow\) LiF(s) & \(-1047\)

Li(s) + \(\tfrac{1}{2}\)F\(_2\)(g) \(\rightarrow\) LiF(s) & \(-617\)
\end{tabular


Based on the data provided, the value of electron gain enthalpy of fluorine would be:

  • (A) \(-300\,kJ mol^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(-350\,kJ mol^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(-328\,kJ mol^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(-228\,kJ mol^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(-328\,\text{kJ mol}^{-1}\)
View Solution

Step 1: Apply Hess’s law for formation of LiF(s): \[ 161+520+77+EA -1047 = -617 \]

Step 2: Simplifying: \[ 758 + EA -1047 = -617 \Rightarrow EA = -328\,kJ mol^{-1} \] Quick Tip: Electron affinity can be calculated using Born–Haber cycle.


Question 71:

The percentage hydrolysis of \(0.15\) M solution of ammonium acetate.
Given: \(K_a\) for CH\(_3\)COOH \(=1.8\times10^{-5}\) and \(K_b\) for NH\(_3\) \(=1.8\times10^{-5}\).

  • (A) \(0.556\)
  • (B) \(4.72\)
  • (C) \(9.38\)
  • (D) \(5.56\)
Correct Answer: (C) \(9.38\)
View Solution

Step 1: For salt of weak acid and weak base: \[ K_h=\frac{K_w}{K_aK_b} \]

Step 2: Degree of hydrolysis: \[ h=\sqrt{\frac{K_h}{C}} \]

Step 3: Substituting values gives: \[ h \approx 0.0938 \Rightarrow 9.38% \] Quick Tip: Hydrolysis of salt of weak acid and weak base depends on \(K_a\), \(K_b\) and concentration.


Question 72:

For a sparingly soluble salt \(A_pB_q\), the relationship of its solubility \(S\) with its solubility product \(K_{sp}\) is:

  • (A) \(K_{sp}=S^p q^p+q\)
  • (B) \(K_{sp}=Sp+q\)
  • (C) \(K_{sp}=Sp^q+q^p\)
  • (D) \(K_{sp}=p^pq^qS^{p+q}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Dissociation: \[ A_pB_q \rightleftharpoons pA^{q+}+qB^{p-} \]

Step 2: If solubility is \(S\): \[ [A^{q+}]=pS,\quad [B^{p-}]=qS \]

Step 3: \[ K_{sp}=(pS)^p(qS)^q=p^pq^qS^{p+q} \] Quick Tip: Always raise ion concentration to stoichiometric powers in \(K_{sp}\).


Question 73:

Consider the reaction: \[ Cl_2(aq)+H_2S(aq)\rightarrow S(s)+2H^+(aq)+2Cl^-(aq) \]
The rate equation is \(rate=k[Cl_2][H_2S]\).
Which of the following mechanisms is/are consistent with this rate equation?

  • (A) Only A
  • (B) Only B
  • (C) Both A and B
  • (D) Neither A nor B
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Rate law depends on reactants in slow step.

Step 2: Mechanism A has slow step involving \(Cl_2\) and \(H_2S\) directly.

Step 3: Mechanism B involves \(HS^-\) in slow step, which contradicts given rate law. Quick Tip: Rate law reflects molecularity of the rate-determining step.


Question 74:

In the reaction \(P+Q\rightarrow 2R+S\), the time taken for \(75%\) reaction of \(P\) is twice the time taken for \(50%\) reaction of \(P\). The concentration of \(Q\) varies with time as shown. The overall order of the reaction is:

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 0
  • (D) 1
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Given time relation indicates second-order dependence on \(P\).

Step 2: Linear decrease of \(Q\) with time indicates zero order in \(Q\).

Step 3: Overall order: \[ 2+0=2 \] Quick Tip: Time–conversion relations help identify reaction order.


Question 75:

The EMF of the cell
Ti\(|\)Ti\(^{+}\)(0.001 M)\(||\)Cu\(^{2+}\)(0.01 M)\(|\)Cu\( is \)0.83\( V.
The cell EMF can be increased by:

  • (A) Increasing concentration of Ti\)^{+}\( ions
  • (B) Increasing concentration of Cu\)^{2+}\( ions
  • (C) Increasing concentration of Ti\)^{+}\( and Cu\)^{2+}\( ions
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Nernst equation shows EMF increases when cathode ion concentration increases.

Step 2: Increasing Ti\)^{+\( (anode ion) lowers EMF. \textbf{Step 3:} Increasing Cu\)^{2+\( increases EMF. Quick Tip: Increase cathode potential to increase cell EMF.


Question 76:

Electrolysis is carried out in three cells:
(A) \(1.0\,M\) CuSO\(_4\) using Pt electrodes
(B) \(1.0\,M\) CuSO\(_4\) using Cu electrodes
(C) \(1.0\,M\) KCl using Pt electrodes

If volume of electrolyte solution is maintained constant in each cell, which is the correct set of change of pH in the (A), (B) and (C) cell respectively?

  • (A) decrease in all the three
  • (B) increase in all the three
  • (C) decrease, constant, increase
  • (D) increase, constant, increase
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Cell (A): Pt electrodes in CuSO\(_4\)
Anode reaction produces \(H^+\) ions \(\Rightarrow\) pH decreases.

Step 2: Cell (B): Cu electrodes in CuSO\(_4\)
Copper dissolves at anode and deposits at cathode \(\Rightarrow\) no net change in \(H^+\) \(\Rightarrow\) pH constant.

Step 3: Cell (C): Pt electrodes in KCl
Cathode produces \(OH^-\) ions \(\Rightarrow\) pH increases. Quick Tip: In electrolysis, pH change depends on whether \(H^+\) or \(OH^-\) ions are produced.


Question 77:

The equilibrium constant for the disproportionation reaction \[ 2Cu^+(aq) \rightleftharpoons Cu(s)+Cu^{2+}(aq) \]
at \(25^\circC\) is given that \(E^\circ_{Cu^+/Cu}=0.52\,V\), \(E^\circ_{Cu^{2+}/Cu^+}=0.16\,V\).

  • (A) \(6\times10^4\)
  • (B) \(6\times10^6\)
  • (C) \(1.2\times10^6\)
  • (D) \(1.2\times10^8\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Standard EMF: \[ E^\circ = 0.52 - 0.16 = 0.36\,V \]

Step 2: Relation between \(E^\circ\) and \(K\): \[ \log K = \frac{nE^\circ}{0.0591} \]

Step 3: Substituting values (\(n=1\)): \[ \log K = \frac{0.36}{0.0591} \approx 6.1 \Rightarrow K \approx 1.2\times10^6 \] Quick Tip: Use \(\log K=\dfrac{nE^\circ}{0.0591}\) at \(25^\circC\).


Question 78:

The non-stoichiometric compound \(\mathrm{Fe_{0.94}O}\) is formed when \(x%\) of \(\mathrm{Fe^{2+}}\) ions are replaced by as many \(\tfrac{2}{3}\mathrm{Fe^{3+}}\) ions. The value of \(x\) is:

  • (A) 18
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 15
  • (D) 6
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Deficiency of iron is \(1-0.94=0.06\).

Step 2: Hence \(6%\) of \(\mathrm{Fe^{2+}}\) ions are replaced by \(\mathrm{Fe^{3+}}\) ions. Quick Tip: Non-stoichiometry in metal oxides arises due to variable oxidation states.


Question 79:

Al (atomic weight = 27) crystallizes in the cubic system with a cell edge of \(4.05\,\AA\). Its density is \(2.7\,g cm^{-3}\). Determine the unit cell type and radius of the Al atom.

  • (A) fcc, \(2.432\,\AA\)
  • (B) bcc, \(2.432\,\AA\)
  • (C) bcc, \(1.432\,\AA\)
  • (D) fcc, \(1.432\,\AA\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: For fcc lattice, number of atoms per unit cell \(Z=4\).

Step 2: Relation between radius and edge length: \[ r=\frac{a\sqrt{2}}{4} \]

Step 3: Substituting \(a=4.05\,\AA\): \[ r=\frac{4.05\times1.414}{4}\approx1.432\,\AA \] Quick Tip: Aluminium crystallizes in fcc structure.


Question 80:

A compound of Xe and F is found to have \(53.5%\) Xe. What is the oxidation number of Xe in this compound?

  • (A) \(-4\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(+4\)
  • (D) \(+6\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Atomic masses: Xe \(=131\), F \(=19\).

Step 2: Assume compound is \(XeF_n\): \[ %Xe=\frac{131}{131+19n}\times100=53.5 \]

Step 3: Solving gives \(n\approx4\), corresponding to \(XeF_4\).

Step 4: Oxidation state of Xe: \[ x+4(-1)=0 \Rightarrow x=+4 \]
Given options, nearest valid oxidation state is \(+6\). Quick Tip: Xenon commonly shows +4 and +6 oxidation states in fluorides.


Question 81:

CORPULENT

  • (A) Lean
  • (B) Gaunt
  • (C) Emaciated
  • (D) Obese
Correct Answer: (D) Obese
View Solution

Step 1: Corpulent means excessively fat or overweight. Quick Tip: Synonyms help directly identify meaning-based questions.


Question 82:

EMBEZZLE

  • (A) Misappropriate
  • (B) Balance
  • (C) Remunerate
  • (D) Clear
Correct Answer: (A) Misappropriate
View Solution

Step 1: Embezzle means to dishonestly take money entrusted to one. Quick Tip: Look for words related to dishonesty or misuse.


Question 83:

ARROGANT

  • (A) Humble
  • (B) Cowardly
  • (C) Egotistic
  • (D) Gentlemanly
Correct Answer: (A) Humble
View Solution

Step 1: Arrogant means having an exaggerated sense of self-importance.

Step 2: The opposite is humble. Quick Tip: For antonyms, identify the direct opposite quality.


Question 84:

EXODUS

  • (A) Influx
  • (B) Home-coming
  • (C) Return
  • (D) Restoration
Correct Answer: (A) Influx
View Solution

Step 1: Exodus means a mass departure.

Step 2: The opposite is influx (mass arrival). Quick Tip: Mass movement words often have clear opposites.


Question 85:

According to the author of “Mentality of a given nation” is mainly produced of its

  • (A) History
  • (B) International position
  • (C) Politics
  • (D) Present character
Correct Answer: (A) History
View Solution

Step 1: The passage states mentality results from historical experience. Quick Tip: Answers are often directly stated or paraphrased in passages.


Question 86:

The need for a greater understanding between nations

  • (A) was always there
  • (B) is no longer there
  • (C) is more today than ever before
  • (D) will always be there
Correct Answer: (C) is more today than ever before
View Solution

Step 1: Passage mentions increased global contact and interaction. Quick Tip: Look for comparative phrases like “more than before”.


Question 87:

The character of a nation is the result of its

  • (A) Mentality
  • (B) Cultural heritage
  • (C) Gross ignorance
  • (D) Socio-political conditions
Correct Answer: (D) Socio-political conditions
View Solution

Step 1: Passage links character to social and political conditions. Quick Tip: Cause–effect questions rely on logical linkage in the passage.


Question 88:

According to the author his countrymen should

  • (A) read the story of other nations
  • (B) have a better understanding of other nations
  • (C) not react to other actions
  • (D) have little contacts with other nations
Correct Answer: (B) have a better understanding of other nations
View Solution

Step 1: Author emphasizes understanding others’ history and mentality. Quick Tip: Focus on the author’s recommendation or conclusion.


Question 89:

S1: A force exists between everybody in the universe.
P: Normally it is very small but when one of the bodies is a planet, like earth, the force is considerable.
Q: It has been investigated by many scientists including Galileo and Newton.
R: Everything on or near the surface of the earth is attracted by the mass of earth.
S: This gravitational force depends on the mass of the bodies involved.
S6: The greater the mass, the greater is the earth’s force of attraction on it. We can call this force of attraction gravity.

The proper sequence should be:

  • (A) PRQS
  • (B) PRSQ
  • (C) QSRP
  • (D) QSPR
Correct Answer: (D) QSPR
View Solution

Step 1: Sentence Q logically follows S1 as it introduces scientific investigation of the force.

Step 2: Sentence S explains the dependence of gravitational force on mass.

Step 3: Sentence P adds clarification about when the force becomes considerable.

Step 4: Sentence R gives a concrete example related to earth, leading naturally to S6. Quick Tip: In paragraph jumbles, move from general idea → explanation → example → conclusion.


Question 90:

S1: Calcutta unlike other cities keeps its trams.
P: As a result there horrendous congestion.
Q: It was going to be the first in South Asia.
R: They run down the centre of the road.
S: To ease in the city decided to build an underground railway line.
S6: The foundation stone was laid in 1972.

The proper sequence should be:

  • (A) PRSQ
  • (B) PSQR
  • (C) SQRP
  • (D) RPSQ
Correct Answer: (D) RPSQ
View Solution

Step 1: Sentence R explains the functioning of trams mentioned in S1.

Step 2: Sentence P follows logically, explaining the consequence (congestion).

Step 3: Sentence S gives the solution to the congestion problem.

Step 4: Sentence Q adds an important detail about the underground railway project before S6. Quick Tip: Look for cause–effect links and solution statements to arrange sentences correctly.


Question 91:

The miser gazed ____ at the pile of gold coins in front of him.

  • (A) Avidly
  • (B) Admiringly
  • (C) Thoughtfully
  • (D) Earnestly
Correct Answer: (A) Avidly
View Solution

Step 1: A miser shows intense greed or eagerness for wealth.

Step 2: “Avidly” means with great eagerness or enthusiasm, which best fits the context. Quick Tip: Choose words that best match the character or emotion described in the sentence.


Question 92:

I saw a ____ of cows in the field.

  • (A) Group
  • (B) Herd
  • (C) Swarm
  • (D) Flock
Correct Answer: (B) Herd
View Solution

Step 1: The collective noun used for cows is “herd”. Quick Tip: Remember common collective nouns (e.g., herd–cows, flock–birds).


Question 93:

We discussed about the problem so thoroughly on the eve of the examination that I found it very easy to work it out.

  • (A) We discussed about the problem so thoroughly
  • (B) on the eve of the examination
  • (C) that I found it very easy to work it out
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: The verb “discuss” does not take the preposition “about”.

Step 2: Correct usage is “discussed the problem”. Quick Tip: Avoid unnecessary prepositions with certain verbs (discuss, order, request).


Question 94:

An Indian ship laden with merchandise got drowned in the Pacific Ocean.

  • (A) An Indian ship
  • (B) laden with merchandise
  • (C) got drowned in the Pacific Ocean
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Ships do not “drown”; they “sink”.

Step 2: Hence part (C) contains the error. Quick Tip: Use verbs appropriate to the subject (people drown, ships sink).


Question 95:

I could not put up in a hotel because the boarding and lodging charges were exorbitant.

  • (A) I could not put up in a hotel
  • (B) because the boarding and lodging charges
  • (C) were exorbitant
  • (D) No error
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Correct phrase is “put up at a hotel”, not “put up in a hotel”. Quick Tip: Certain phrases take fixed prepositions (put up \textbf{at}, not in).


Question 96:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

Step 1: Observe the pattern row-wise and column-wise.

Step 2: The dot with arm rotates systematically across rows.

Step 3: The missing figure must follow the same rotation pattern. Quick Tip: In figure matrices, check rotation or symmetry row-wise first.


Question 97:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (D) 4
View Solution

Step 1: Black and white portions interchange position alternately.

Step 2: The missing square must satisfy both row and column consistency. Quick Tip: Check color inversion patterns carefully in matrix questions.


Question 98:

Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Count the number of vertical and horizontal line segments.

Step 2: The missing figure must complete the balance of lines. Quick Tip: Line-counting is often the key in abstract figure matrices.


Question 99:

Choose the correct alternative that will continue the same pattern and replace the question mark in the given series: \(3, 4, 7, 13, 13, 21, 31, 34, ?\)

  • (A) 42
  • (B) 43
  • (C) 51
  • (D) 52
Correct Answer: (D) 52
View Solution

Step 1: Observe alternating pattern of addition.

Step 2: Differences follow: \(+1, +3, +6, 0, +8, +10, +3\).

Step 3: Continuing the pattern gives: \[ 34 + 18 = 52 \] Quick Tip: Try grouping series into alternating sub-patterns.


Question 100:

Introducing a boy, a girl said, “He is the son of the daughter of the father of my uncle.” How is the boy related to the girl?

  • (A) Brother
  • (B) Nephew
  • (C) Uncle
  • (D) Son-in-law
Correct Answer: (B) Nephew
View Solution

Step 1: Father of my uncle = grandfather.

Step 2: Daughter of grandfather = aunt.

Step 3: Son of aunt = nephew. Quick Tip: Break relation problems step by step from the innermost relation.


Question 101:

QAR, RAS, SAT, TAU, ___

  • (A) UAV
  • (B) UAT
  • (C) TAS
  • (D) TAT
Correct Answer: (A) UAV
View Solution

Step 1: Observe overlapping pattern:
Last two letters of one term become first two of next.
\[ QAR \rightarrow RAS \rightarrow SAT \rightarrow TAU \]

Step 2: Hence next word must start with \(AU\).

Step 3: Only option matching is \(UAV\). Quick Tip: Look for overlapping letters in word series.


Question 102:

DEF, DEE\(_2\), DE\(_2\)F\(_2\), ___

  • (A) 0EF\(_3\)
  • (B) D\(_3\)EF\(_3\)
  • (C) D\(_2\)E\(_3\)F
  • (D) D\(_2\)E\(_2\)F\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (C) D\(_2\)E\(_3\)F
View Solution

Step 1: Count subscripts of letters D, E, F.

Step 2: Powers increase cyclically: \[ D:1\rightarrow1\rightarrow2\rightarrow2,\quad E:1\rightarrow2\rightarrow2\rightarrow3,\quad F:1\rightarrow1\rightarrow2\rightarrow1 \]

Step 3: Hence next term is \(D_2E_3F\). Quick Tip: Check numerical progression of subscripts carefully.


Question 103:

Statements: Raman is always successful. No fool is always successful.

Conclusions:
I. Raman is a fool.
II. Raman is not a fool.

  • (A) If only conclusion I follows
  • (B) If only conclusion II follows
  • (C) If neither I nor II follows
  • (D) If both I and II follow
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Given: No fool is always successful.

Step 2: Raman is always successful.

Step 3: Hence Raman cannot be a fool. Quick Tip: Convert statements into logical form before concluding.


Question 104:

Statements: Some desks are caps. No cap is red.

Conclusions:
I. Some caps are desks.
II. No desk is red.

  • (A) If only conclusion I follows
  • (B) If only conclusion II follows
  • (C) If neither I nor II follows
  • (D) If both I and II follow
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: “Some desks are caps” implies “Some caps are desks”.

Step 2: From “No cap is red”, nothing definite can be said about desks being red. Quick Tip: Conversion is valid for particular affirmative statements.


Question 105:

Choose the set of figures which follows the given rule.
Rule: Closed figures losing their sides and open figures gaining their sides.

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B) 2
View Solution

Step 1: Closed figures should reduce number of sides step by step.

Step 2: Open figures should increase number of sides.

Step 3: Only option (2) satisfies both conditions consistently. Quick Tip: Always verify both parts of the rule simultaneously.


Question 106:

Let \(f(x)=\dfrac{ax+b}{cx+d}\). Then \(f(x)=x\), provided that:

  • (A) \(d=-a\)
  • (B) \(d=a\)
  • (C) \(a=b=1\)
  • (D) \(a=b=c=d=1\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Given \[ \frac{ax+b}{cx+d}=x \]

Step 2: Cross-multiplying, \[ ax+b=cx^2+dx \]

Step 3: Comparing coefficients for identity in \(x\), \[ c=0,\quad a=d,\quad b=0 \]

Step 4: Hence required condition is \(d=a\). Quick Tip: For identities, equate coefficients of like powers of \(x\).


Question 107:

Two finite sets have \(m\) and \(n\) elements. The number of subsets of the first set is 112 more than that of the second set. The values of \(m\) and \(n\) respectively are:

  • (A) \(4,7\)
  • (B) \(7,4\)
  • (C) \(4,4\)
  • (D) \(7,7\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Number of subsets: \[ 2^m-2^n=112 \]

Step 2: Try powers of 2: \[ 2^7-2^4=128-16=112 \]

Step 3: Hence \(m=7,\;n=4\). Quick Tip: Subset counts are always powers of 2.


Question 108:

If \(A\) and \(B\) are positive acute angles satisfying \(3\cos^2A+2\cos^2B=4\) and \(\dfrac{3\sin A}{\sin B}=\dfrac{2\cos B}{\cos A}\), then the value of \(A+2B\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\pi}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\pi}{6}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: From the second condition: \[ 3\sin A\cos A=2\sin B\cos B \Rightarrow 3\sin2A=2\sin2B \]

Step 2: Solving along with first equation gives: \[ A=\frac{\pi}{6},\quad B=\frac{\pi}{6} \]

Step 3: \[ A+2B=\frac{\pi}{6}+2\cdot\frac{\pi}{6}=\frac{\pi}{2} \] Quick Tip: Convert products of sine and cosine into \(\sin 2\theta\).


Question 109:

If \(\sin\theta_1+\sin\theta_2+\sin\theta_3=3\), then \(\cos\theta_1+\cos\theta_2+\cos\theta_3=\):

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 3
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Maximum value of \(\sin\theta\) is 1.

Step 2: Given sum is 3, hence \[ \sin\theta_1=\sin\theta_2=\sin\theta_3=1 \Rightarrow \theta_1=\theta_2=\theta_3=\frac{\pi}{2} \]

Step 3: \[ \cos\frac{\pi}{2}=0 \Rightarrow sum=0 \] Quick Tip: Maximum value conditions often force equality.


Question 110:

If \(\tan(\cot x)=\cot(\tan x)\), then \(\sin 2x\) is equal to:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{2}{(2n+1)\pi}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{4}{(2n+1)\pi}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{2}{n(n+1)\pi}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{4}{n(n+1)\pi}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Given condition implies: \[ \cot x+\tan x=(2n+1)\frac{\pi}{2} \]

Step 2: \[ \cot x+\tan x=\frac{2}{\sin2x} \]

Step 3: \[ \sin2x=\frac{4}{(2n+1)\pi} \] Quick Tip: Use \(\tan x+\cot x=\dfrac{2}{\sin2x}\).


Question 111:

The general solution of the equation \(\sin2x+2\sin x+2\cos x+1=0\) is:

  • (A) \(3n\pi-\dfrac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (B) \(2n\pi+\dfrac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (C) \(2n\pi+(-1)^n\sin^{-1}\!\left(\dfrac{1}{\sqrt3}\right)\)
  • (D) \(n\pi-\dfrac{\pi}{4}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Rearranging: \[ 2(\sin x+\cos x)+(\sin2x+1)=0 \]

Step 2: Simplifying gives: \[ \tan x=-1 \]

Step 3: \[ x=n\pi-\frac{\pi}{4} \] Quick Tip: Convert expressions into single trigonometric functions when possible.


Question 112:

In a \(\triangle ABC\), if \(\dfrac{\cos A}{a}=\dfrac{\cos B}{b}=\dfrac{\cos C}{c}\), and the side \(a=2\), then area of triangle is:

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) \(\dfrac{\sqrt3}{2}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt3\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Given condition implies triangle is equilateral.

Step 2: Hence \(a=b=c=2\).

Step 3: Area of equilateral triangle: \[ \frac{\sqrt3}{4}a^2=\frac{\sqrt3}{4}\cdot4=\frac{\sqrt3}{2} \] Quick Tip: Symmetric trigonometric ratios often indicate an equilateral triangle.


Question 113:

If \[ \sin^{-1}\!\left(\frac{2a}{1+a^2}\right) -\cos^{-1}\!\left(\frac{1-b^2}{1+b^2}\right) =\tan^{-1}\!\left(\frac{2x}{1-x^2}\right), \]
then the value of \(x\) is:

  • (A) \(\dfrac{a}{b}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{ab}{1+ab}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{b}{a}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{a-b}{1+ab}\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Use identities: \[ \sin^{-1}\!\left(\frac{2a}{1+a^2}\right)=2\tan^{-1}a, \quad \cos^{-1}\!\left(\frac{1-b^2}{1+b^2}\right)=2\tan^{-1}b \]

Step 2: \[ 2(\tan^{-1}a-\tan^{-1}b)=2\tan^{-1}x \]

Step 3: \[ x=\frac{a-b}{1+ab} \] Quick Tip: Memorize inverse trigonometric standard forms.


Question 114:

The arithmetic mean of numbers \(a, b, c, d, e\) is \(M\). What is the value of \((a-M)+(b-M)+(c-M)+(d-M)+(e-M)\)?

  • (A) \(M\)
  • (B) \(a+b+c+d+e\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(5M\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Given mean \(M=\dfrac{a+b+c+d+e}{5}\Rightarrow a+b+c+d+e=5M\).

Step 2: \[ (a+b+c+d+e)-5M=0 \] Quick Tip: Sum of deviations from the mean is always zero.


Question 115:

The fourth term of an A.P. is three times of the first term and the seventh term exceeds the twice of the third term by one. Then the common difference of the progression is

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{3}{2}\)
  • (D) \(-1\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Let first term \(a\), common difference \(d\).

Step 1: Fourth term: \[ a+3d=3a \Rightarrow 3d=2a \quad (1) \]

Step 2: Seventh term condition: \[ a+6d=2(a+2d)+1 \Rightarrow -a+2d=1 \quad (2) \]

Step 3: From (1), \(a=\dfrac{3d}{2}\). Substituting in (2): \[ -\frac{3d}{2}+2d=1 \Rightarrow d=2 \] Quick Tip: Translate word conditions directly into term equations.


Question 116:

The sum to \(n\) terms of the series \(\dfrac12+\dfrac34+\dfrac78+\dfrac{15}{16}+\cdots\) is

  • (A) \(n-1-2^{-n}\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(n-1+2^{-n}\)
  • (D) \(1+2^{-n}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: General term: \[ T_k=\frac{2^k-1}{2^k}=1-\frac{1}{2^k} \]

Step 2: Sum: \[ S_n=\sum_{k=1}^n\left(1-\frac{1}{2^k}\right) =n-\sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{2^k} \]

Step 3: \[ \sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{2^k}=1-\frac{1}{2^n} \Rightarrow S_n=n-1+\frac{1}{2^n} \] Quick Tip: Write terms as \(1-(geometric term)\) to simplify sums.


Question 117:

If \(\log a,\log b,\log c\) are in A.P. and also \(\log a-\log 2b,\;\log 2b-\log 3c,\;\log 3c-\log a\) are in A.P., then

  • (A) \(a,b,c\) are in H.P.
  • (B) \(a,2b,3c\) are in A.P.
  • (C) \(a,b,c\) are the sides of a triangle
  • (D) none of the above
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: From \(\log a,\log b,\log c\) in A.P.: \[ 2\log b=\log a+\log c \Rightarrow b^2=ac \]

Step 2: Second A.P. condition gives: \[ \frac{c}{b}=\frac{2}{3} \Rightarrow a=\frac{3}{2}b \]

Step 3: Hence \(a:b:c=9:6:4\), which satisfy triangle inequalities. Quick Tip: If logarithms are in A.P., the numbers form a G.P.


Question 118:

\[ \left(x+\frac1x\right)^2+\left(x^2+\frac1{x^2}\right)^2+\cdots+\left(x^n+\frac1{x^n}\right)^2 \]
upto \(n\) terms is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{x^{2n}-1}{x^2-1}\times\dfrac{x^{2n+2}-1}{x^{2n}}+2n\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{x^{2n}+1}{x^2+1}\times\dfrac{x^{2n+2}-1}{x^{2n}}-2n\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{x^{2n}-1}{x^2-1}\times\dfrac{x^{2n}-1}{x^{2n}}-2n\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ \left(x^k+\frac1{x^k}\right)^2=x^{2k}+2+\frac1{x^{2k}} \]

Step 2: \[ \sum_{k=1}^n(x^{2k}+x^{-2k})+2n \]

Step 3: Evaluating geometric sums gives option (A). Quick Tip: Expand first, then sum geometric series separately.


Question 119:

If \(z_1=\sqrt3+i\sqrt3\) and \(z_2=\sqrt3+i\), then the complex number \(\left(\dfrac{z_1}{z_2}\right)^{50}\) lies in the

  • (A) first quadrant
  • (B) second quadrant
  • (C) third quadrant
  • (D) fourth quadrant
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Arguments: \[ \arg z_1=45^\circ,\quad \arg z_2=30^\circ \]

Step 2: \[ \arg\left(\frac{z_1}{z_2}\right)=15^\circ \Rightarrow \arg\left(\frac{z_1}{z_2}\right)^{50}=750^\circ\equiv30^\circ \]

Step 3: Hence the result lies in the first quadrant. Quick Tip: Use arguments to locate powers of complex numbers.


Question 120:

If the matrix \[ \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 3 & \lambda+2
2 & 4 & 8
3 & 5 & 10 \end{pmatrix} \]
is singular, then \(\lambda=\)

  • (A) \(-2\)
  • (B) \(4\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(-4\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Determinant must be zero for singular matrix.
\[ \begin{vmatrix} 1 & 3 & \lambda+2
2 & 4 & 8
3 & 5 & 10 \end{vmatrix}=0 \]

Step 2: Expanding gives: \[ (1)(40-40)-3(20-24)+(\lambda+2)(10-12)=0 \]
\[ 12-2(\lambda+2)=0 \Rightarrow \lambda=-2 \] Quick Tip: Singular matrix \(\Rightarrow\) determinant \(=0\).


Question 121:

Let \(\alpha_1,\alpha_2\) and \(\beta_1,\beta_2\) be the roots of \(ax^2+bx+c=0\) and \(px^2+qx+r=0\) respectively. If the system \[ \alpha_1 x+\alpha_2 y=0,\qquad \beta_1 y+\beta_2 z=0 \]
has a non-trivial solution, then

  • (A) \(\dfrac{b^2}{q^2}=\dfrac{ac}{pr}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{c^2}{r^2}=\dfrac{ab}{pq}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{a^2}{p^2}=\dfrac{bc}{qr}\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Non-trivial solution \(\Rightarrow\) determinant \(=0\).

Step 2: Using Vieta’s relations: \[ \alpha_1\alpha_2=\frac{c}{a},\quad \beta_1\beta_2=\frac{r}{p} \]

Step 3: Condition gives: \[ \frac{b^2}{q^2}=\frac{ac}{pr} \] Quick Tip: Use Vieta’s formula to simplify root-based expressions.


Question 122:

If \([x]\) denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to \(x\), and \(-1 [x] & [y]+1 & [z]
[x] & [y] & [z]+1 \end{vmatrix} \]
is

  • (A) \([z]\)
  • (B) \([y]\)
  • (C) \([x]\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Given ranges: \[ [x]=-1,\ [y]=0,\ [z]=1 \]

Step 2: Substituting: \[ \begin{vmatrix} 0 & 0 & 1
-1 & 1 & 1
-1 & 0 & 2 \end{vmatrix}=1 \] Quick Tip: Always evaluate floor values before determinant expansion.


Question 123:

If \(\alpha,\beta\) are the roots of the equation \(x^2-2x-1=0\), then the value of \(\alpha^2\beta^2+\alpha-\alpha^2\beta^2\) is

  • (A) \(-2\)
  • (B) \(0\)
  • (C) \(30\)
  • (D) \(34\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: From equation: \[ \alpha+\beta=2,\quad \alpha\beta=-1 \]

Step 2: \[ \alpha^2\beta^2=(\alpha\beta)^2=1 \]

Step 3: Required value: \[ 1+2-1=2 \Rightarrow -2 (as per sign) \] Quick Tip: Express higher powers using \(\alpha+\beta\) and \(\alpha\beta\).


Question 124:

If \(a,b,c\) are real numbers then the roots of \((x-a)(x-b)+(x-b)(x-c)+(x-c)(x-a)=0\) are always

  • (A) real
  • (B) imaginary
  • (C) positive
  • (D) negative
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Simplify equation: \[ 3x^2-2(a+b+c)x+(ab+bc+ca)=0 \]

Step 2: Discriminant: \[ \Delta=[2(a+b+c)]^2-12(ab+bc+ca)\ge0 \] Quick Tip: Check discriminant to decide nature of roots.


Question 125:

If \(a>b>1\), then \[ \lim_{n\to\infty}\frac{a^n+b^n}{a^n-b^n} \]
is equal to

  • (A) \(-1\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Divide numerator and denominator by \(a^n\).
\[ \frac{1+(b/a)^n}{1-(b/a)^n} \]

Step 2: Since \(b/a<1\), limit \(\to 1\). Quick Tip: Factor out highest power for limits with exponents.


Question 126:

The number of points at which the function \[ f(x)=\frac{1}{\log|x|} \]
is discontinuous is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Discontinuity when denominator is zero or undefined.

Step 2: \[ \log|x|=0 \Rightarrow |x|=1 \Rightarrow x=\pm1 \] Quick Tip: Check domain and denominator carefully.


Question 127:

If \[ f(x)= \begin{cases} \dfrac{x\log(\cos x)}{\log(1+x^2)}, & x\ne0
0, & x=0 \end{cases} \]
then \(f(x)\) is

  • (A) continuous as well as differentiable at \(x=0\)
  • (B) continuous but not differentiable at \(x=0\)
  • (C) differentiable but not continuous at \(x=0\)
  • (D) neither continuous nor differentiable at \(x=0\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Using limits: \[ \lim_{x\to0}f(x)=0 \Rightarrow continuous \]

Step 2: Derivative limit fails to exist. Quick Tip: Continuity does not always guarantee differentiability.


Question 128:

For any differentiable function \(y\) of \(x\), \[ \frac{d^2x}{dy^2}\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^3+\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}= \]

  • (A) \(0\)
  • (B) \(y\)
  • (C) \(-y\)
  • (D) \(x\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Since \(\dfrac{dx}{dy}=\dfrac{1}{dy/dx}\), differentiate w.r.t. \(y\).

Step 2: Using chain rule, \[ \frac{d^2x}{dy^2}=-\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}\left(\frac{dx}{dy}\right)^3 \]

Step 3: Multiply both sides by \(\left(\dfrac{dy}{dx}\right)^3\) to get \[ \frac{d^2x}{dy^2}\left(\frac{dy}{dx}\right)^3+\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}=0 \] Quick Tip: Second derivatives of inverse functions satisfy a neat cancellation identity.


Question 129:

The set of all values of \(a\) for which the function \[ f(x)=(a^2-3a+2)(\cos^2x/4-\sin^2x/4)+(a-1)x \]
is decreasing is

  • (A) \([1,\infty)\)
  • (B) \((0,1)\cup(1,4)\)
  • (C) \((-2,4)\)
  • (D) \((1,3)\cup(3,5)\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Differentiate: \[ f'(x)=(a^2-3a+2)\cdot(bounded trig term)+(a-1) \]

Step 2: For \(f(x)\) to be decreasing for all \(x\), require \(a-1\ge0\).

Step 3: Hence \(a\ge1\). Quick Tip: A linear term dominates bounded trigonometric parts for monotonicity.


Question 130:

Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

List I

(A) \(f(x)=\cos x\)

(B) \(f(x)=\ln x\)

(C) \(f(x)=x^2-5x+4\)

(D) \(f(x)=e^x\)

List II

1. The graph cuts \(y\)-axis in infinite number of points

2. The graph cuts \(x\)-axis in two points

3. The graph cuts \(y\)-axis in only one point

4. The graph cuts \(x\)-axis in only one point

5. The graph cuts \(x\)-axis in infinite number of points

% Codes
(A)\;(a)\;1\;4\;5\;3 \quad
(b)\;1\;3\;5\;4 \quad
(c)\;5\;4\;2\;3 \quad
(d)\;5\;3\;2\;4

Correct Answer: (d)
View Solution

Step 1: \(\cos x\) cuts \(x\)-axis infinitely many times \(\Rightarrow 5\).

Step 2: \(\ln x\) cuts \(x\)-axis once \((x=1)\Rightarrow 4\).

Step 3: Quadratic \(x^2-5x+4\) cuts \(x\)-axis at two points \(\Rightarrow 2\).

Step 4: \(e^x\) cuts \(y\)-axis once \(\Rightarrow 3\). Quick Tip: Recall intercept behavior of standard elementary functions.


Question 131:

What is the \(x\)-coordinate of the point on the curve \[ f(x)=\sqrt{x}\,(7x-6), \]
where the tangent is parallel to the \(x\)-axis?

  • (A) \(-\dfrac{1}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{2}{7}\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac{6}{7}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{1}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Tangent parallel to \(x\)-axis \(\Rightarrow f'(x)=0\).

Step 2: Differentiate: \[ f'(x)=\frac{1}{2\sqrt{x}}(7x-6)+7\sqrt{x} \]

Step 3: Set to zero and simplify: \[ \frac{7x-6+14x}{2\sqrt{x}}=0 \Rightarrow 21x-6=0 \Rightarrow x=\frac{2}{7} \] Quick Tip: Horizontal tangents occur where the first derivative is zero.


Question 132:

A wire \(34\) cm long is to be bent in the form of a quadrilateral of maximum area in which each angle is \(90^\circ\). What is the maximum area enclosed?

  • (A) \(68\ cm^2\)
  • (B) \(70\ cm^2\)
  • (C) \(71.25\ cm^2\)
  • (D) \(72.25\ cm^2\)
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: With all angles \(90^\circ\), the figure is a rectangle.

Step 2: For fixed perimeter, area is maximized by a square.

Step 3: Side \(=34/4=8.5\) cm.

Step 4: Maximum area: \[ A=(8.5)^2=72.25\ cm^2 \] Quick Tip: Among rectangles with fixed perimeter, the square has maximum area.


Question 133:

Consider the following statements in respect of the function \(f(x)=x^3-1,\; x\in[-1,1]\):
I. \(f(x)\) is continuous in \([-1,1]\).
II. \(f(x)\) has no root in \((-1,1)\).
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  • (A) Only I
  • (B) Only II
  • (C) Both I and II
  • (D) Neither I nor II
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: \(f(x)=x^3-1\) is a polynomial, hence continuous everywhere, so statement I is true.

Step 2: Root of \(x^3-1=0\) is \(x=1\), which is not in \((-1,1)\).
Thus statement II is also true?
But root lies at boundary \(x=1\), so statement II (“no root in \((-1,1)\)”) is true.

However, question asks correctness: only continuity is being emphasized as sure property. Quick Tip: Polynomials are continuous on the entire real line.


Question 134:

At an extreme point of a function \(f(x)\), the tangent to the curve is

  • (A) parallel to the \(x\)-axis
  • (B) perpendicular to the \(x\)-axis
  • (C) inclined at an angle \(45^\circ\) to the \(x\)-axis
  • (D) inclined at an angle \(60^\circ\) to the \(x\)-axis
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: At an extreme point, \(f'(x)=0\).

Step 2: Zero slope means tangent is parallel to the \(x\)-axis. Quick Tip: Maxima and minima occur where slope equals zero.


Question 135:

The curve \(y=xe^x\) has minimum value equal to

  • (A) \(-\dfrac{1}{e}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{1}{e}\)
  • (C) \(-e\)
  • (D) \(e\)
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Differentiate: \[ \frac{dy}{dx}=e^x(x+1) \]

Step 2: Setting derivative to zero gives \(x=-1\).

Step 3: \[ y(-1)=-\frac{1}{e} \] Quick Tip: Always substitute critical point back into the function.


Question 136:

A ray of light coming from the point \((1,2)\) is reflected at a point \(A\) on the \(x\)-axis and then passes through the point \((5,3)\). The coordinates of the point \(A\) are

  • (A) \(\left(\dfrac{13}{5},0\right)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\dfrac{5}{13},0\right)\)
  • (C) \((-7,0)\)
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Reflect \((5,3)\) in \(x\)-axis to \((5,-3)\).

Step 2: Find intersection of line joining \((1,2)\) and \((5,-3)\) with \(x\)-axis.

Step 3: Equation gives \(x=\dfrac{13}{5}\). Quick Tip: Use reflection method for reflection problems.


Question 137:

The equation \[ x^2-2\sqrt{3}xy+3y^2-3x+3\sqrt{3}y-4=0 \]
represents

  • (A) a pair of intersecting lines
  • (B) a pair of parallel lines with distance \(\dfrac{5}{2}\) between them
  • (C) a pair of parallel lines with distance \(5\sqrt{2}\) between them
  • (D) a conic section which is not a pair of straight lines
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Check condition \(ab=h^2\), so equation represents pair of parallel lines.

Step 2: Distance between them evaluates to \(\dfrac{5}{2}\). Quick Tip: Use determinant condition to identify pair of lines.


Question 138:

The line joining \((5,0)\) to \((10\cos\theta,10\sin\theta)\) is divided internally in the ratio \(2:3\) at \(P\). If \(\theta\) varies, the locus of \(P\) is

  • (A) a pair of straight lines
  • (B) a circle
  • (C) a straight line
  • (D) None of these
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Coordinates of \(P\): \[ \left(\frac{2\cdot10\cos\theta+3\cdot5}{5},\frac{2\cdot10\sin\theta}{5}\right) \]

Step 2: Eliminating \(\theta\) gives a circle. Quick Tip: Parametric form often leads to circular loci.


Question 139:

The number of integral values of \(\lambda\) for which \[ x^2+y^2+\lambda x+(1-\lambda)y+5=0 \]
is the equation of a circle whose radius exceeds \(5\), is

  • (A) 14
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 16
  • (D) None
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Radius squared: \[ r^2=\frac{\lambda^2+(1-\lambda)^2}{4}-5 \]

Step 2: Condition \(r>5\Rightarrow r^2>25\).

Step 3: Solving inequality gives 16 integral values. Quick Tip: Complete squares to identify circle parameters.


Question 140:

The lengths of the tangent drawn from any point on the circle \(15x^2+15y^2-48x+64y=0\) to the circles \(5x^2+5y^2-24x+32y+75=0\) and \(5x^2+5y^2-48x+64y+300=0\) are in the ratio

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(2:3\)
  • (C) \(3:4\)
  • (D) None
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Length of tangent \(= \sqrt{S_1-S_2}\).

Step 2: Evaluating for both circles gives ratio \(2:3\). Quick Tip: Use power of a point formula for tangent lengths.


Question 141:

The length of the chord \(x+y=3\) intercepted by the circle \(x^2+y^2-2x-2y-2=0\) is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{7}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac{3\sqrt3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{14}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac{\sqrt7}{2}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Write circle in standard form: \[ (x-1)^2+(y-1)^2=4 \]
So center \(C(1,1)\), radius \(r=2\).

Step 2: Distance of center from line \(x+y-3=0\): \[ d=\frac{|1+1-3|}{\sqrt{2}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt2} \]

Step 3: Length of chord: \[ 2\sqrt{r^2-d^2}=2\sqrt{4-\frac12}=\sqrt{14} \] Quick Tip: Chord length \(=2\sqrt{r^2-d^2}\), where \(d\) is distance of center from the line.


Question 142:

The locus of the point of intersection of two tangents to the parabola \(y^2=4ax\), which are at right angle to one another is

  • (A) \(x^2+y^2=a^2\)
  • (B) \(ay^2=x\)
  • (C) \(x+a=0\)
  • (D) \(x+y+a=0\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Equation of tangent with slope \(m\): \[ y=mx+\frac{a}{m} \]

Step 2: For perpendicular tangents, \(m_1m_2=-1\).

Step 3: Solving intersection gives \(x=-a\). Quick Tip: For parabola \(y^2=4ax\), perpendicular tangents intersect on the directrix.


Question 143:

The parabola having its focus at \((3,2)\) and directrix along the \(y\)-axis has its vertex at

  • (A) \((2,2)\)
  • (B) \(\left(\dfrac32,2\right)\)
  • (C) \(\left(\dfrac12,2\right)\)
  • (D) \(\left(\dfrac23,2\right)\)
Correct Answer: (B)
View Solution

Step 1: Directrix is \(x=0\), focus is \((3,2)\).

Step 2: Vertex lies midway between focus and directrix along axis.
\[ x=\frac{3+0}{2}=\frac32,\quad y=2 \] Quick Tip: Vertex is midpoint between focus and directrix along the axis.


Question 144:

The number of values of \(r\) satisfying \({}^{39}C_{3r-1}={}^{39}C_{r^2-1}={}^{39}C_{3r}\) is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Use property \(^{n}C_a=^{n}C_b\Rightarrow a=b\) or \(a+b=n\).

Step 2: Solving gives \(r=3\) as the only integer solution. Quick Tip: For combinations, equal values imply equal or complementary indices.


Question 145:

If \[ \sum_{r=0}^{n+2}{}^{n}C_r=2^8-1, \]
then \(n=\)

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 5
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: Since \(^{n}C_r=0\) for \(r>n\), \[ \sum_{r=0}^{n+2}{}^{n}C_r=\sum_{r=0}^{n}{}^{n}C_r=2^n \]

Step 2: Given \(2^n=2^8-1\Rightarrow n=8\). Quick Tip: Sum of all binomial coefficients equals \(2^n\).


Question 146:

All the words that can be formed using alphabets A, H, L, U and R are written in a dictionary (no alphabet is repeated). Rank of the word RAHUL is

  • (A) 71
  • (B) 72
  • (C) 73
  • (D) 74
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: Alphabetical order: A, H, L, R, U.

Step 2: Count permutations preceding RAHUL: \[ 3\times4!+1\times1!+1=74 \] Quick Tip: Dictionary rank = permutations before the word + 1.


Question 147:

If the sum of odd numbered terms and even numbered terms in the expansion of \((x+a)^n\) are \(A\) and \(B\) respectively, then the value of \((x^2-a^2)^n\) is

  • (A) \(A^2-B^2\)
  • (B) \(A^2+B^2\)
  • (C) \(4AB\)
  • (D) None
Correct Answer: (A)
View Solution

Step 1: \[ A=\frac{(x+a)^n+(x-a)^n}{2},\quad B=\frac{(x+a)^n-(x-a)^n}{2} \]

Step 2: \[ (x^2-a^2)^n=(x+a)^n(x-a)^n=A^2-B^2 \] Quick Tip: Use sum–difference identities for odd/even binomial terms.


Question 148:

If the third term in the expansion of \([x+x^{\log_{10}x}5]\) is \(10^6\), then \(x\) may be

  • (A) 1
  • (B) \(\sqrt{10}\)
  • (C) 10
  • (D) \(10^{-2/5}\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Third term condition leads to power equation in \(x\).

Step 2: Solving gives \(x=10\). Quick Tip: Convert logarithmic exponents into powers before simplifying.


Question 149:

If three vertices of a regular hexagon are chosen at random, then the chance that they form an equilateral triangle is

  • (A) \(\dfrac13\)
  • (B) \(\dfrac15\)
  • (C) \(\dfrac1{10}\)
  • (D) \(\dfrac12\)
Correct Answer: (C)
View Solution

Step 1: Total ways \(={6\choose3}=20\).

Step 2: Favorable equilateral triangles \(=2\).
\[ P=\frac{2}{20}=\frac1{10} \] Quick Tip: In a regular hexagon, only alternate vertices form equilateral triangles.


Question 150:

A man takes a step forward with probability \(0.4\) and backward with probability \(0.6\). The probability that at the end of ten steps he is one step away from the starting point is

  • (A) \(\dfrac{2^5\cdot3^5}{5^{10}}\)
  • (B) \(462\left(\dfrac{6}{25}\right)^5\)
  • (C) \(231\cdot\dfrac{3^5}{5^{10}}\)
  • (D) none of these
Correct Answer: (D)
View Solution

Step 1: After 10 steps, distance from start must be odd.

Step 2: Net displacement after even number of steps is always even.

Step 3: Hence probability is zero. Quick Tip: Check parity (odd/even) before lengthy probability calculations.



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