Re-NEET 2026 Zoology Question Paper is available here. NTA conducted NEET 2026 re-exam on 21 June in single shift from 2 PM to 5:15 PM. NEET Re-Test question question paper consists of 180 questions for 720 marks to be attempted in 3 hours and 15 minutes.

  • NEET Zoology Question Paper 2026 consists of 45 questions for 180 marks.
  • Each correct answer carries 4 marks and incorrect answer has a negative marking of 1.

Candidates can download NEET 2026 Re-Exam Zoology Question Paper with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below

Re-NEET 2026 Zoology Question Paper with Solution PDF

NEET Re-Exam Zoology Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solution


Question 1:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells.

Reason R: Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is not correct but \(R\) is correct
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is correct but \(R\) is not correct

Question 2:

The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called:

  • (A) Embryo transfer (ET)
  • (B) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)
  • (C) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
  • (D) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)

Question 3:

Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of

  • (A) genetic drift
  • (B) divergent evolution
  • (C) convergent evolution
  • (D) founder effect

Question 4:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: In an experiment, Mendel observed that the \(F_1\) progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf.

Reason R: Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is not correct but \(R\) is correct
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is correct but \(R\) is not correct

Question 5:

Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest.

(a) Plants

(b) Birds

(c) Fishes

(d) Invertebrates

(e) Mammals

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \((b) > (a) > (d) > (c) > (e)\)
  • (B) \((c) > (b) > (d) > (e) > (a)\)
  • (C) \((d) > (a) > (c) > (b) > (e)\)
  • (D) \((e) > (b) > (a) > (c) > (d)\)

Question 6:

Sponges exchange \(O_2\) with \(CO_2\) by

  • (A) gills
  • (B) simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces
  • (C) moist cuticle
  • (D) tracheal tubes

Question 7:

For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes ?

  • (A) Father : \(I^A I^B\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (B) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)
  • (C) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (D) Father : \(I^B i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)

Question 8:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Modern Homo sapiens arose in Australia and moved across continents.

Statement II: Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 9:

Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients ?

  • (A) Anti-retroviral drugs
  • (B) Interferon
  • (C) Antibiotics
  • (D) Morphine

Question 10:

Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds ?

  • (A) Pea
  • (B) Wheat
  • (C) Maize
  • (D) Barley

Question 11:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced.

Reason R: Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is not correct but \(R\) is correct
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is correct but \(R\) is not correct

Question 12:

The covering of ovum at ovulation is

  • (A) chorion
  • (B) endometrium
  • (C) zona radiata
  • (D) zona pellucida

Question 13:

Which of the following is used as a clot buster ?

  • (A) Statins
  • (B) Streptokinase
  • (C) Penicillin
  • (D) Cyclosporin A

Question 14:

Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system ?

  • (A) Infundibulum
  • (B) Rete testis
  • (C) Epididymis
  • (D) Vasa efferentia

Question 15:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles.

Statement II: Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 16:

The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by

  • (A) sino-atrial node
  • (B) bicuspid valve
  • (C) tricuspid valve
  • (D) semilunar valve

Question 17:

Which of the following is not evidence for evolution ?

  • (A) Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs
  • (B) Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies
  • (C) Paleontological evidence from fossil records
  • (D) Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Heckel

Question 18:

The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut

  • (A) by nucleases
  • (B) due to alkaline pH
  • (C) due to acidic pH
  • (D) by proteases

Question 19:

Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in

  • (A) IgD
  • (B) IgG
  • (C) IgM
  • (D) IgA

Question 20:

Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs ?

  • (A) Polar nucleus
  • (B) Antipodals
  • (C) Synergids
  • (D) Central cells

Question 21:

Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted ?

  • (A) Genital warts
  • (B) Syphilis
  • (C) Tuberculosis
  • (D) Gonorrhoea

Question 22:

Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct ?

  • (A) Galactose can act as an inducer of lac operon
  • (B) Gene i is constitutively expressed
  • (C) Lactose activates repressor to bind to the operator
  • (D) Genes i, z, y and a share single common promoter

Question 23:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Transformation I. Restriction enzyme
B. Cloning site II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria
C. Selection IV. Antibiotic
D. Ori III. Replication

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 24:

A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is

  • (A) \(0.99\)
  • (B) \(0.01\)
  • (C) \(0.02\)
  • (D) \(0.10\)

Question 25:

Sperm motility is due to __________.

  • (A) muscular movement
  • (B) flagellar movement
  • (C) ciliary movement
  • (D) amoeboid movement

Question 26:

Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is __________.

  • (A) 100 million
  • (B) 1 million
  • (C) 5 million
  • (D) 10 million

Question 27:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous.

Reason R: Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is false but \(R\) is true
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are true, but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is true but \(R\) is false

Question 28:

Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of __________.

  • (A) cyclic adenine monophosphate
  • (B) acetyl choline
  • (C) acetyl coenzyme A
  • (D) cyclic guanine monophosphate

Question 29:

Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta ?

  • (A) LH
  • (B) hCG
  • (C) Estrogen
  • (D) Progesterone

Question 30:

Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium ?

  • (A) Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut
  • (B) Reproduces sexually in liver cells
  • (C) Reproduces sexually in RBCs
  • (D) Gametocytes develop in mosquito gut

Question 31:

Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain ?

  • (A) Carnivores
  • (B) Parasites
  • (C) Predators
  • (D) Herbivores

Question 32:

Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle's loop are correct ?

(a) The descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.

(b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle's loop.

(c) Reabsorption of \(Na^+\) and water takes place in Henle's loop.

(d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle's loop.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a), (b) and (d) only
  • (B) (a) and (b) only
  • (C) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (D) (a), (b) and (c) only

Question 33:

Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model.

Reason R: Resources are finite.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) \(A\) is not correct but \(R\) is correct
  • (B) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct and \(R\) is the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (C) Both \(A\) and \(R\) are correct but \(R\) is not the correct explanation of \(A\)
  • (D) \(A\) is correct but \(R\) is not correct

Question 34:

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebrate column from the head to toe ?

  • (A) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, lumbar vertebra, sacrum
  • (B) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum, lumbar vertebra
  • (C) Sacrum, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, cervical vertebra
  • (D) Cervical vertebra, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum

Question 35:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Both species are harmed I. Predation
B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited II. Mutualism
C. Both species are benefited III. Competition
D. One is benefited while the other has no effect IV. Commensalism

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (C) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 36:

If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm ?

  • (A) 72
  • (B) 18
  • (C) 36
  • (D) 54

Question 37:

Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA ?

  • (A) DNA polymerase
  • (B) RNA polymerase I
  • (C) RNA polymerase II
  • (D) RNA polymerase III

Question 38:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA.

Statement II: Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

Question 39:

How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther?

  • (A) 12
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 8

Question 40:

Natural selection can lead to

(a) stabilisation

(b) genetic drift

(c) directional change

(d) disruption

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a) and (c) only
  • (B) (a) only
  • (C) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (D) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

Question 41:

Which of the following statements are correct?

(a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional

(b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted

(c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (b) and (c) only
  • (B) (a), (b) and (c)
  • (C) (a) and (b) only
  • (D) (a) and (c) only

Question 42:

Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Excess growth hormone I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney
B. Luteinizing hormone II. Contraction of uterus during child birth
C. Vasopressin III. Acromegaly
D. Oxytocin IV. Ovulation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (C) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-I, D-III

Question 43:

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs?

(a) Bone marrow

(b) Tonsils

(c) Spleen

(d) Thymus

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (a) and (d) only
  • (B) (a) and (b) only
  • (C) (b) and (c) only
  • (D) (b) and (d) only

Question 44:

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the __________ step.

  • (A) ligation
  • (B) denaturation
  • (C) extension
  • (D) annealing

Question 45:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes.

Statement II: Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (B) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
  • (C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect

NEET 2026 Zoology Topic-Wise Weightage

Topic Expected Questions
Animal Kingdom 3–4
Structural Organization in Animals 4–5
Human Reproduction 4–5
Principles of Inheritance and Variation 4–5
Human Health and Disease 4–5
Chemical Coordination and Integration 2–4
Body Fluids and Circulation 2–3
Breathing and Exchange of Gases 1–2
Excretory Products and their Elimination 1–2
Locomotion and Movement 1–2
Organisms and Populations 3–4
Ecosystem 2–3
Biodiversity and Conservation 2–3
Evolution 1–2
Reproductive Health 1–2
Microbes in Human Welfare 2–3
Neural Control and Coordination 1

NEET 2026 Zoology Final Revision