The NEET 2026 Re-Exam Question Paper Code 80 is available for download here. NTA conducted the NEET Re-Exam 2026 on 21 June in a single shift from 2 PM to 5:15 PM. The NEET Re-Test question paper consists of 180 questions for 720 marks to be attempted in 3 hours and 15 minutes.

Also Check: Re-NEET Answer Key 2026 Code 80

  • NEET Question Paper 2026 is divided into 3 sections- Physics (45 questions), Chemistry (45 questions), and Biology (90 questions).
  • Each correct answer carries 4 marks, and an incorrect answer has a negative marking of 1.

Candidates can download the NEET Re-Exam 2026 Question Paper Code 80 with Answer Key and Solution PDF from the links provided below. According to initial student reaction, NEET Re-Test Paper 2026 was of easy to moderate to level.

NEET 2026 Re-Exam Question Paper with Solution PDF Code 80

NEET Re-Exam Code 80 Question Paper 2026 Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

An ideal gas is made of polyatomic molecules.
Each of the molecules has three translational, three rotational and \(f\) number of vibrational modes.
If the ratio of heat capacities \(C_p/C_v\) of the gas is \(8/7\), then the value of \(f\) is :

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 2:

One main scale division of a Vernier calliper is equal to \(1 mm\) and the number of divisions on the Vernier scale is \(10\).
When both the jaws touch each other, the Vernier scale shifts to the left of zero of the main scale in such a way that \(4^{th}\) Vernier division coincides with a division of the main scale.
If this Vernier calliper measures the length of a wire to be \(1 cm\), the actual length of the wire is :

  • (A) \(0.96 cm\)
  • (B) \(1.00 cm\)
  • (C) \(1.04 cm\)
  • (D) \(0.60 cm\)

Question 3:

Three identical p-n junction diodes \(D_1, D_2\) and \(D_3\) are connected across a battery as shown in the figure.
If the width of the depletion regions of \(D_1, D_2\) and \(D_3\) are \(W_1, W_2\) and \(W_3\), respectively, then the correct option is :



  • (A) \(W_3 = W_1 > W_2\)
  • (B) \(W_3 > W_2 > W_1\)
  • (C) \(W_2 > W_1 = W_3\)
  • (D) \(W_1 > W_2 > W_3\)

Question 4:

Consider a spring-mass simple harmonic oscillator in one dimension.
The mass of the particle is \(m kg\) and the spring constant is \(k Nm^{-1}\).
At a given instant, the extension of the spring is \(x meter\) and the speed of the particle is \(v ms^{-1}\).
On the \(x - v\) plane, if the graph of \(v\) as a function of \(x\) is a circle, then the correct option is :

  • (A) \(k = m\)
  • (B) \(k = m^2\)
  • (C) \(k = \sqrt{m}\)
  • (D) \(k = \frac{1}{m}\)

Question 5:

An electromagnetic wave travelling in a lossless dielectric medium having a dielectric constant, \(\epsilon_r = 9\), has the electric field, \(E_x = E_0 \sin(kz - 2\pi \times 10^6 t) Vm^{-1}\) where \(E_0\) is the amplitude and \(k\) is the wave vector.
Among the following options, the incorrect choice is :

  • (A) The wavelength of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is \(300 m\)
  • (B) The magnetic field is given by the relation \(B_y = \frac{B_0}{v} \sin(kz - 2\pi \times 10^6 t)\) where \(v\) is the speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium
  • (C) The direction of propagation of the electromagnetic wave is along \(+z\)
  • (D) The speed of the electromagnetic wave inside the medium is \(10^8 ms^{-1}\)

Question 6:

A frictionless circular wire of unit radius is fixed on the horizontal plane.
Two point particles of unit mass start moving simultaneously from point \(A \left( \theta = \frac{\pi}{2} \right)\) with identical uniform angular speeds in opposite directions, and meet again at point \(B \left( \theta = -\frac{\pi}{2} \right)\).
During this time, which of the following figures schematically represent the magnitude of the total linear momentum \(P\) of the system, as a function of \(\theta\)?



  • (A) GRAPH 1
  • (B) GRAPH 2
  • (C) GRAPH 3
  • (D) GRAPH 4

Question 7:

In Geiger-Marsden experiment, the number of scattered \(\alpha\)-particles \(N(\theta)\) is plotted as a function of scattering angle \(\theta\).
Which of the following options represents the correct plot?



  • (A) GRAPH 1
  • (B) GRAPH 2
  • (C) GRAPH 3
  • (D) GRAPH 4

Question 8:

Consider three media P, Q and R with refractive indices \(1, 1.25\), and \(1.5\), respectively.
The medium Q having a thickness of \(5 cm\) is placed between extended media P and R as shown in the figure.
An object O is placed at the center of medium Q.
If viewed from medium P near the normal direction, the apparent depth of O is \(h_1\).
For similar observation from medium R, the apparent depth is \(h_2\).
The value of \(|h_1 - h_2|\), in cm, is :



  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(3\)
  • (D) \(0\)

Question 9:

For sound waves, if the number of nodes for the \(5^{th}\) harmonic of an open-ended pipe is \(n\) and that for the \(9^{th}\) harmonic of the same pipe with one of its ends closed is \(m\), the ratio \(\frac{n}{m}\) is :

  • (A) \(\frac{9}{5}\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{9}\)

Question 10:

Two infinitely long parallel conducting wires A and B carry currents \(I\) and \(2I\), respectively, in the same direction.
The wire A has uniform mass per unit length \(\lambda\) and lies on an insulated floor.
The wire B is kept fixed at a height \(h\) above the floor.
The minimum magnitude of \(h\) so that the wire A does not rise from the floor is :

  • (A) \(\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{2\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4\mu_0 I^2}{\pi \lambda g}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu_0 I^2}{2\pi \lambda g}\)

Question 11:

An ac voltage \(V = 220 \sin(2 \times 10^3 t) Volt\) is applied to a series LCR circuit.
Then the current amplitude in this circuit is : (Given : \(L = 10 mH, C = 25\muF, R = 100\Omega\))

  • (A) \(5.5 A\)
  • (B) \(11.0 A\)
  • (C) \(22.0 A\)
  • (D) \(2.2 A\)

Question 12:

Consider a fixed uniformly charged insulating sphere with radius R and total charge \(+Q\).
A point charge \(-q\) (\(q \ll Q\)) with mass \(m\) is released from rest at a distance of \(3R\) from the centre of the charged sphere.
When the point charge reaches the surface of the sphere, its speed is :

  • (A) \(\sqrt{\frac{2Qq}{3\pi \epsilon_0 mR}}\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{3\pi \epsilon_0 mR}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{\frac{Qq}{4\pi \epsilon_0 mR}}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{\frac{3Qq}{4\pi \epsilon_0 mR}}\)

Question 13:

A beam of light falls on a metal surface such that photo-electrons are generated.
If power of the light source starts to decrease linearly with time \(t\), then variation of the photocurrent \(I\) and magnitude of the stopping potential \(|V|\) with time is best represented by :



  • (A) GRAPH 1
  • (B) GRAPH 2
  • (C) GRAPH 3
  • (D) GRAPH 4

Question 14:

Two planets \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) with equal mass have radii \(R_1\) and \(R_2\), respectively, where \(R_2 = \frac{R_1}{2}\).
The escape speeds of \(P_1\) and \(P_2\) are \(v_1\) and \(v_2\), respectively.
Then \(\frac{v_2}{v_1}\) is :

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)

Question 15:

A unit positive point charge is taken slowly through an infinitesimally thin tube that is inside a charged dielectric sphere of radius \(R\), having uniform positive charge density \(\rho\), as shown in the figure.
The initial and final positions of the charge are marked by A and B at distances \(2R\) and \(3R\) respectively, from the centre of the sphere.
In this process, the magnitude of the total work done on the point charge is \(\frac{\rho R^2}{n \epsilon_0}\).
The value of \(n\) is :



  • (A) \(6\)
  • (B) \(9\)
  • (C) \(18\)
  • (D) \(2\)

Question 16:

One mole of an ideal monatomic gas undergoes a cyclic process as shown in the figure.
The total heat supplied to the gas is :



  • (A) \(500 J\)
  • (B) \(600 J\)
  • (C) \(800 J\)
  • (D) \(400 J\)

Question 17:

The following table presents the part of the electromagnetic spectrum and their corresponding major applications.


\begin{tabular}{|l|l|c|l|}
\hline
& \textbf{Part of EM spectrum} & & \textbf{Applications}
\hline
P & Microwave & I & For purifying the water
\hline
Q & UV rays & II & For warming the food
\hline
R & Gamma rays & III & communication systems
\hline
S & Radio wave & IV & For treating the Cancer cells
\hline
\end{tabular}

The correct option is :

  • (A) P-I, Q-IV, R-II, S-III
  • (B) P-II, Q-I, R-IV, S-III
  • (C) P-II, Q-IV, R-III, S-I
  • (D) P-I, Q-II, R-III, S-IV

Question 18:

A car travels on a circular racetrack of radius \(50 m\), which is banked at an angle \(\theta\).
If the car travels at a speed \(10 ms^{-1}\), then the wear and tear on its tyres is minimum.
Taking the acceleration due to gravity to be \(10 ms^{-2}\), the value of \(\theta\) is :

  • (A) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{2}{5}\right)\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}(\sqrt{3}/2)\)
  • (C) \(\tan^{-1}(2\sqrt{3})\)
  • (D) \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1}{5}\right)\)

Question 19:

Consider a particle moving along a straight line, whose position as a function of time is given by \(s(t) = \alpha t^2 - \beta t + \gamma\), where \(\alpha = 1 ms^{-2}, \beta = 6 ms^{-1}\) and \(\gamma = 5 m\).
The average speed of the particle, in \(ms^{-1}\), from \(t = 0\) to \(t = 6 s\) is :

  • (A) \(6\)
  • (B) \(3\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \(12\)

Question 20:

A point charge Q is placed inside a cavity within a solid isolated conducting sphere.
Consider points A, B and C as shown in the figure, where the magnitudes of the electric fields are \(E_A, E_B\) and \(E_C\), respectively.
The points B and C are at the same distance from the center of the solid sphere.
The correct option is :



  • (A) \(E_A \ne 0, E_B = E_C\)
  • (B) \(E_A = 0, E_B > E_C\)
  • (C) \(E_A \ne 0, E_B < E_C\)
  • (D) \(E_A = 0, E_B = E_C\)

Question 21:

In the measurement of viscosity of liquids using terminal velocity experiment, spherical balls of same radius but having different densities are used.
The variation of the terminal velocity (\(v\)) with the ratio of density of spherical ball (\(\sigma\)) to density of the liquid (\(\rho\)), is best represented by :



  • (A) GRAPH 1
  • (B) GRAPH 2
  • (C) GRAPH 3
  • (D) GRAPH 4

Question 22:

A ray of light with wavelength \(\lambda\) is incident on three different photo-electric cells namely 1, 2 and 3.
The threshold wavelength of these photo-electric cells are \(\lambda_1, \lambda_2\) and \(\lambda_3\), respectively and the magnitude of stopping potentials of these cells are \(V_1, V_2\) and \(V_3\), respectively.
The relation between \(\lambda\) and threshold wavelengths are \(\lambda_1 < \lambda, \lambda_2 > \lambda\) and \(\lambda_3 \gg \lambda\).
The correct option is :

  • (A) \(V_1 = 0, V_2 > V_3\)
  • (B) \(V_1 > V_2, V_3 = 0\)
  • (C) \(V_1 < V_2, V_3 = 0\)
  • (D) \(V_1 = 0, V_2 < V_3\)

Question 23:

A current \(I_0\) flows through a metallic circular loop of radius \(r\) as shown in the figure.
Resistance of the segment ABC is half that of ADC.
Magnitude of magnetic field at the center O of the loop is :



  • (A) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{4r}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{2r}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{2\pi r}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\mu_0 I_0}{12r}\)

Question 24:

A particle of mass M moves along a horizontal x axis from \(x=0\) to \(x=L\).
The coefficient of kinetic friction varies as \(\mu_k(x) = \mu_0 - \alpha x\), where \(\mu_0, \alpha\) are constants of appropriate dimensions, so that \(\mu_k(L) = 0\).
The total work done by the frictional force during the motion is \(n \mu_0 MgL\), where the value of \(n\) is :

  • (A) \(1\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) \(3\)

Question 25:

In a solar system, the time-period of revolution of a planet tracing a circular orbit of radius R is proportional to :

  • (A) \(R^{3/2}\)
  • (B) \(R^2\)
  • (C) \(R^3\)
  • (D) \(R^{1/2}\)

Question 26:

A solid sphere A of radius R and mass M is attached at a point to a smaller solid sphere B of radius \(r < R\) and mass \(m < M\).
Assume that the line joining their centres lies along the horizontal.
The moment of inertia of the system calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of A is \(I_A\) and that calculated about a vertical axis passing through the centre of B is \(I_B\).
The difference \(I_A - I_B\) is :



  • (A) \((m-M)(R+r)^2\)
  • (B) \((m-M)(R-r)^2\)
  • (C) \(0\)
  • (D) \((M-m)(R+r)^2\)

Question 27:

The lens combination as shown in the figure, consists of two lenses, \(L_1\) and \(L_2\), of the focal lengths \(+10 cm\) and \(-10 cm\), respectively.
The position of the image formed is :



  • (A) \(60 cm\) to the left of the concave lens
  • (B) \(30 cm\) to the right of the concave lens
  • (C) \(60 cm\) to the right of the concave lens
  • (D) \(20 cm\) to the left of the concave lens

Question 28:

An ideal Zener diode with breakdown voltage of \(3 V\) is reverse biased with a negative input voltage \(V_i = -5 V\).
The magnitude of voltage difference between points B and A is :



  • (A) \(2 V\)
  • (B) \(1 V\)
  • (C) \(0 V\)
  • (D) \(3 V\)

Question 29:

Three identical capacitors P, Q and S, each of the capacitance C, are connected to a battery of voltage V, as shown in the figure.
If the energy stored in the capacitor P and total energy stored in the system are \(U_P\) and \(U_T\), respectively, then the ratio \(\frac{U_P}{U_T}\) is :



  • (A) \(1/3\)
  • (B) \(1/2\)
  • (C) \(1/6\)
  • (D) \(2/3\)

Question 30:

A conducting loop of finite resistance lies on the \(x-y\) plane.
There is a constant magnetic field in the \(z\) direction.
The area of the loop varies with time \(t\), as \(A = A_0(1 + \sin t)\) in appropriate units.
The figure that correctly indicates the qualitative behaviour of the power \(P\) dissipated in the loop as a function of time is :



  • (A) GRAPH 1
  • (B) GRAPH 2
  • (C) GRAPH 3
  • (D) GRAPH 4

Question 31:

Consider two circuits, (A) and (B), each having two resistors.
One of them has a positive temperature coefficient of resistance, \(+\alpha\), while the other one has a negative temperature coefficient of coefficient, \(-\alpha\), as shown in the figure.
The current through these circuits are denoted by \(I_A\) and \(I_B\).
At initial temperature, the resistance of the two resistors is \(R_0\).
As the temperature is increased, the correct option that describes the variation of current in these circuits is :



  • (A) \(I_A\) decreases while \(I_B\) increases
  • (B) \(I_A\) increases while \(I_B\) decreases
  • (C) both \(I_A\) and \(I_B\) remain constant
  • (D) \(I_A\) remains constant while \(I_B\) increases

Question 32:

Bob B of mass \(m\) at rest is hanging vertically from the ceiling via a massless string of length \(10 m\), as shown in the figure.
Point mass A of mass \(m\) travelling horizontally with speed \(10 ms^{-1}\) hits bob B elastically.
The bob B rises \(h\) meter after the collision.
Taking the acceleration due to gravity \(g = 10 ms^{-2}\) and neglecting the size of the bob, the value of \(h\) is :



  • (A) \(7\)
  • (B) \(5\)
  • (C) \(2.5\)
  • (D) \(8\)

Question 33:

A cylindrical cork of uniform density floats in a liquid of density \(\rho_1\).
If the cork is depressed slightly and released, it oscillates harmonically with time period T.
If the same cork floats in another liquid of density \(\rho_2\), then the similar oscillation has time period \(2T\).
The value of \(\rho_2/\rho_1\) is :

  • (A) \(2\)
  • (B) \(1/2\)
  • (C) \(1/4\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 34:

The mean free path of molecules in an ideal gas A is half that of another ideal gas B.
The diameter of the molecules of gas A is twice the diameter of molecules of gas B.
If number densities of the gases A and B are \(n_A\) and \(n_B\), respectively, then the correct option is :

  • (A) \(n_A = 2n_B\)
  • (B) \(n_A = \frac{1}{4}n_B\)
  • (C) \(n_A = \frac{1}{2}n_B\)
  • (D) \(n_A = n_B\)

Question 35:

Consider the following nuclear reaction : \[ ^{238}U \to ^{234}Th + ^4He \]
Take masses of: \(^{238}U\), \(^{234}Th\) and \(^4He\) as \(238.050 u\), \(234.043 u\) and \(4.003 u\), respectively.
The Q value for the reaction, in keV, is :

[Given : \(1 u = 931.5 MeV c^{-2}\)]

  • (A) \(3730\)
  • (B) \(3736\)
  • (C) \(3740\)
  • (D) \(3726\)

Question 36:

Consider a long solenoid of length \(l\) and radius \(r\).
If \(n\) is the number of turns per unit length and \(\mu_0\) is the permeability of free space, the inductance of the solenoid is :

  • (A) \(\mu_0 n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (B) \((\mu_0/2\pi) n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (C) \(2\mu_0 \pi n^2 r^2 l\)
  • (D) \(\mu_0 \pi n^2 r^2 l\)

Question 37:

Which of the following measurements require 'index correction'?

  • (A) Measurement of gravitational acceleration using simple pendulum
  • (B) Measurement of focal length of lenses using optical bench
  • (C) Measurement of speed of sound using resonance tube
  • (D) Measurement of resistance of a wire using meter bridge

Question 38:

The temperature of a metallic sphere of radius R is increased by a small amount \(\Delta T\).
If the linear coefficient of thermal expansion of the metal is \(\alpha\), the approximate increase in the volume of the sphere is :

  • (A) \(3\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T\)
  • (B) \(4\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T\)
  • (C) \(6\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T\)
  • (D) \(2\pi R^3 \alpha \Delta T\)

Question 39:

A photon and an electron, each of \(20 eV\) energy, move in free space.
The ratio of linear momentum of the electron \(P_e\) to that of photon \(P_{ph}\), \(\frac{P_e}{P_{ph}}\) is :

(Take speed of light \(= 3 \times 10^8 ms^{-1}\), charge of electron \(= -1.6 \times 10^{-19} C\) and mass of electron \(= 9 \times 10^{-31} kg\))

  • (A) \(1/250\)
  • (B) \(225\)
  • (C) \(275\)
  • (D) \(2/450\)

Question 40:

Consider that an electron is revolving in an excited state of Hydrogen atom with velocity \(\sqrt{25.6} \times 10^5 ms^{-1}\).
The radius of the orbit is \(x \times 10^{-9} m\).
The value of \(x\) is :

(Take mass of electron \(= 9 \times 10^{-31} kg\), charge of electron \(= 1.6 \times 10^{-19} C\) and \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} = 9 \times 10^9 N m^2 C^{-2}\))

  • (A) \(3\)
  • (B) \(2\)
  • (C) \(1\)
  • (D) \(4\)

Question 41:

Two identical inductors are connected in two different configurations P and Q, where a time varying current \(I(t)\) is flowing, as shown in the figure.
The induced emf between points a and b for configuration P is \(E_P\) and that for configuration Q is \(E_Q\).
The ratio \(E_P/E_Q\) is :

[Neglect the effect of mutual inductance.]

  • (A) \(1/2\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(1/4\)

Question 42:

In an adiabatic expansion, the temperature of one mole of an ideal monatomic gas (\(\gamma=5/3\)) decreases from \(60 K\) to \(50 K\).
The work done by the gas in the process is :

(Take the universal gas constant as \(R=8.3 J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(83 J\)
  • (B) \(124.5 J\)
  • (C) \(166 J\)
  • (D) \(41.5 J\)

Question 43:

Water flows in a streamline motion through a horizontal pipe of circular cross-section.
The pressure difference between \(P\) and \(Q\) is \(15 Nm^{-2}\).
The area of cross-section at \(P\) and \(Q\) are \(40 cm^2\) and \(20 cm^2\), respectively.
The rate of flow of water through the pipe, in \(cm^3s^{-1}\), is :

[Take density of water \(= 1000 kg m^{-3}\)]

  • (A) \(200\)
  • (B) \(300\)
  • (C) \(400\)
  • (D) \(100\)

Question 44:

A thin horizontal disc is rotating about a vertical axis passing through its fixed centre \(O\).
Its angular momentum is \(L_A\) and \(L_B\) computed about points \(A\) and \(B\), respectively, with \(OB = 2 \times OA\).
The value of \(\frac{L_A}{L_B}\) is :

  • (A) \(1/2\)
  • (B) \(1\)
  • (C) \(2\)
  • (D) \(1/4\)

Question 45:

Match the species in List I with their geometry in List II



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II

Question 46:

The amino acid that gives a red-blood colour on treating its sodium fusion extract with sodium nitroprusside is

  • (A) threonine
  • (B) methionine
  • (C) serine
  • (D) leucine

Question 47:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Oxidation of \(p\)-nitrotoluene with acidic \(KMnO_4\) gives an acid that is stronger than benzoic acid.

Statement-II: Reduction of \(p\)-nitrotoluene with \(Sn/HCl\) followed by neutralization gives an amine that is more basic than aniline.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
  • (B) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (C) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

Question 48:

The standard electrode potential (\(E^\circ\)) for the half-cell reaction \(Fe^{3+} + e^- \rightarrow Fe^{2+}\) at \(298 K\) is

(Given: \(E^\circ(Fe^{3+}/Fe) = -0.04 V\) and \(E^\circ(Fe^{2+}/Fe) = -0.44 V\) at \(298 K\))

  • (A) \(+0.76 V\)
  • (B) \(-0.48 V\)
  • (C) \(+0.92 V\)
  • (D) \(+0.44 V\)

Question 49:

The compound that CANNOT be obtained from the aldol condensation reaction shown below, is









  • (A) figA
  • (B) figB
  • (C) figC
  • (D) figD

Question 50:

For a salt \(XY\), which is a strong electrolyte, the plot of \(\Lambda_m\) versus \(\sqrt{c}\) has a slope of \(-90.0 S cm^2 mol^{-3/2} L^{1/2}\) at \(298 K\). At \(0.01 M\) concentration of \(XY\), the value of \(\Lambda_m\) is \(145.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1}\). The limiting molar conductivity of \(Y^-\) ion (\(\lambda_{Y^-}^\circ\), in \(S cm^2 mol^{-1}\)) at \(298 K\) will be

(Given: \(\lambda_{X^+}^\circ = 74.0 S cm^2 mol^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(100.0\)
  • (B) \(90.0\)
  • (C) \(76.0\)
  • (D) \(80.0\)

Question 51:

Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : The first ionization enthalpy of \(O\) is lower than that of \(N\) and \(F\).

Reason R : The loss of an electron from \(O\) leads to stable half-filled \(p\) orbital.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both \textbf{A} and \textbf{R} are correct and \textbf{R} is NOT the correct explanation of \textbf{A}.
  • (B) \textbf{A} is correct but \textbf{R} is not correct.
  • (C) \textbf{A} is not correct but \textbf{R} is correct.
  • (D) Both \textbf{A} and \textbf{R} are correct and \textbf{R} is the correct explanation of \textbf{A}.

Question 52:

According to crystal field theory, the correct order of ligands with respect to their decreasing order of field strength is

  • (A) \(CO > H_2O > NH_3 > Cl^-\)
  • (B) \(Cl^-\) > \(H_2O > NH_3 > CO\)
  • (C) \(Cl^-\) > \(NH_3 > H_2O > CO\)
  • (D) \(CO > NH_3 > H_2O > Cl^-\)

Question 53:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : \([Fe(ox)_3]^{3-}\) is chiral.

Statement-II : \(trans-[Cr(H_2O)_2(ox)_2]^-\) is chiral.

(Given : \(oxH_2 = HOOC-COOH\))

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
  • (B) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (C) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

Question 54:

For the following reaction sequence, choose the correct option

  • (A) \(P\) and \(Q\) are aromatic compounds.
  • (B) If \(P\) gives a carboxylic acid on acidification, \(Q\) gives a poisonous gas on exposure to air and light.
  • (C) Both \(P\) and \(Q\) are carbonyl compounds.
  • (D) If \(P\) is the sodium salt of a carboxylic acid, \(Q\) is a primary alcohol.

Question 55:

For an elementary chemical reaction, the Arrhenius plot is given below.





If the energy of activation is \(6.64 kJ mol^{-1}\) and \(R = 8.3 J K^{-1} mol^{-1}\), the temperature at which the rate constant becomes \(e^2 min^{-1}\), is

  • (A) \(150 K\)
  • (B) \(200 K\)
  • (C) \(250 K\)
  • (D) \(125 K\)

Question 56:

Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of polarity

A. \(CH_3CH_2OCH_2CH_3\)

B. \(CH_3CH_2OH\)

C. \(CH_3COCH_3\)

D. \(CH_3COOH\)

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (A) \(C < A < D < B\)
  • (B) \(C < A < B < D\)
  • (C) \(A < C < B < D\)
  • (D) \(A < B < C < D\)

Question 57:

A protein undergoes reversible thermal denaturation from its initial state N to denatured state D according to N \(\rightleftharpoons\) D. At \(60\ ^\circC\), the concentrations of both \textit{N and \textit{D are equal at equilibrium, and the standard enthalpy change of denaturation is \(666 kJ mol^{-1\). The standard entropy change (\(\Delta S^\circ\) in kJ K\(^{-1\)mol\(^{-1\)) of the protein upon denaturation at \(60\ ^\circC\) is closest to:

  • (A) \(2000.0 \)
  • (B) \(333.0 \)
  • (C) \(11.1 \)
  • (D) \(2.0 \)

Question 58:

Consider the following statements about the solutions formed by mixing two liquids.

A. An ideal solution thus formed obeys Raoult's law throughout the composition range.

B. Mixture of chloroform and acetone shows negative deviation from Raoult's law.

C. Mixture of aniline and phenol shows positive deviation from Raoult's law.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) B and C only
  • (B) A only
  • (C) A and C only
  • (D) A and B only

Question 59:

Given below are two statements:

Statement-I: Heating \(NaCl\) with concentrated \(H_2SO_4\) and \(MnO_2\) results in oxidation of \(Mn\).

Statement-II: Heating \(NaI\) with concentrated \(H_2SO_4\) and \(MnO_2\) results in reduction of \(Mn\).

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
  • (B) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
  • (C) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
  • (D) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

Question 60:

Given below are two statements:

Statement I: trans-But-2-ene upon treatment with \(Br_2\) in \(CCl_4\) gives the following product:



Statement II: cis-But-2-ene upon treatment with alkaline \(KMnO_4\) gives the following product:



In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
  • (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
  • (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

Question 61:

The highest occupied molecular orbital for \(Ne_2\) is:

  • (A) \(\sigma_{2p} \)
  • (B) \(\pi^*_{2p} \)
  • (C) \(\sigma^*_{2p} \)
  • (D) \(\pi_{2p} \)

Question 62:

The following carbocation is stabilized by the interaction of the empty p orbital with


  • (A) empty \(\sigma\) and empty \(\pi^*\) orbitals
  • (B) empty \(\sigma^*\) and filled \(\pi\) orbitals
  • (C) empty \(\sigma^*\) and empty \(\pi^*\) orbitals
  • (D) filled \(\sigma\) and filled \(\pi\) orbitals

Question 63:

The green paramagnetic species formed by heating \(KMnO_4\) at \(513 K\) is:

  • (A) \(Mn_3O_4 \)
  • (B) \(MnO \)
  • (C) \(KO_2 \)
  • (D) \(K_2MnO_4 \)

Question 64:

The correct statement is:

  • (A) Beryllium has three valence orbitals.
  • (B) Magnesium has a maximum covalency of four.
  • (C) Aluminium has five valence orbitals.
  • (D) Boron has a maximum covalency of four.

Question 65:

The correct statement about peptides and proteins is:

  • (A) Only the proteins having a quaternary structure are biologically active.
  • (B) In \(\beta\)-pleated sheet structures, peptide chains are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (C) In \(\alpha\)-helices, the polypeptide chain is twisted into a left-handed screw (helix) through intramolecular hydrogen bonds.
  • (D) Tertiary structure of proteins has two or more polypeptide subunits.

Question 66:

The reaction \(2A \xrightarrow{k} B\) is a zero-order reaction, where \(k = 1.0 mol L^{-1} min^{-1}\). If the initial concentration of \textit{A is \(2 M\), then the time taken to complete \(75%\) of the reaction will be:

  • (A) \(0.75 min \)
  • (B) \(1.0 min \)
  • (C) \(2.0 min \)
  • (D) \(1.5 min \)

Question 67:

Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A: Generally, \(3d\) transition metals have high melting points.

Reason R: Involvement of \(3d\)-electrons in addition to \(4s\)-electrons in the interatomic metallic bonding.

In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

  • (A) Both A and R are correct and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
  • (B) A is correct but R is not correct.
  • (C) A is not correct but R is correct.
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.

Question 68:

Consider the following schematic plots of orbital wavefunction (\(\psi_r\)) against distance (\textit{r) from the nucleus.



The figure representing two radial nodes in the orbital is:

  • (A) B
  • (B) C
  • (C) D
  • (D) A

Question 69:

Identify the reactions which give aniline as the major product.









Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

  • (A) B and D only
  • (B) A and C only
  • (C) C and D only
  • (D) A and B only

Question 70:

Among the species given below, the spin-only magnetic moment is highest for:

(Given : Atomic number of \(Ti = 22\), \(Mn = 25\), \(Fe = 26\) and \(Co = 27\))

  • (A) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (B) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (C) \([Ti(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (D) \([Mn(CN)_6]^{3-}\)

Question 71:

The complex which has facial and meridional isomers is

(Given : \(py = pyridine\) and \(en = H_2N-CH_2-CH_2-NH_2\))

  • (A) \([Cr(H_2O)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (B) \([Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)_2]^{3+}\)
  • (C) \([Ni(en)_2(H_2O)_2]^{2+}\)
  • (D) \([Cr(py)_3(Cl)_3]\)

Question 72:

A \(1:3\) electrolyte in an aqueous solution is

  • (A) \([CoCl(NH_3)_5]Cl_2\)
  • (B) \([Co(NH_3)_6]Cl_3\)
  • (C) \([Co(NH_3)_3(NO_2)_3]\)
  • (D) \([CoCl_2(NH_3)_4]Cl\)

Question 73:

Consider the reversible processes for \(1.0 mol\) of an ideal gas as shown in the figure.



\(w_1, w_2, w_3\) and \(w_4\) represent work done (in calories) in the processes 1, 2, 3 and 4, respectively; \(\Delta U_2\) and \(\Delta U_4\) are changes in the internal energy for the processes 2 and 4, respectively.
\([\)use \(R = 2 cal K^{-1}mol^{-1}]\)

The correct option is

  • (A) \(w_2 + w_4 = \Delta U_2 - \Delta U_4\)
  • (B) \(w_1 + w_2 = 2T_1\ln\frac{V_2}{V_1}\)
  • (C) \(w_1 + w_2 + w_3 + w_4 = 0\)
  • (D) \(w_1 + w_3 = -2T_1\ln\frac{V_2}{V_1} - 2T_2\ln\frac{V_4}{V_3}\)

Question 74:

In an acidic medium, \(10 mL\) of \(0.25 M\) oxalic acid is titrated with \(KMnO_4\) solution. If the volume of \(KMnO_4\) solution required to reach end point is \(10 mL\), the strength of the \(KMnO_4\) solution is

  • (A) \(0.20 M\)
  • (B) \(0.25 M\)
  • (C) \(0.15 M\)
  • (D) \(0.10 M\)

Question 75:

The lanthanide ion having four unpaired electrons is

(Given : Atomic numbers of \(Ce = 58\), \(Nd = 60\), \(Tb = 65\) and \(Ho = 67\))

  • (A) \(Ce^{3+}\)
  • (B) \(Tb^{3+}\)
  • (C) \(Ho^{3+}\)
  • (D) \(Nd^{3+}\)

Question 76:

The correct decreasing order of oxidation state of the underlined atom in each molecule is

  • (A) \(N_2O_5 > Al_2O_3 > H_2S\)
  • (B) \(PbO_2 > N_2O_3 > SO_3\)
  • (C) \(P_4O_6 > Cl_2O_7 > AlH_3\)
  • (D) \(P_4O_{10} > SO_3 > H_2O\)

Question 77:

The formula of tetraammineaquachloridocobalt(III) chloride is

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_4]Cl_3 \times H_2O\)
  • (B) \([Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl\)
  • (C) \([Co(NH_3)_4(H_2O)Cl]Cl_2\)
  • (D) \([Co(NH_3)_4Cl_2] \times H_2O\)

Question 78:

Consider the following reaction, and choose the correct option.

  • (A) Compound \textbf{P} can be prepared by treating benzene with anhydrous \(AlCl_3\) and \(CH_3COCl\).
  • (B) On treatment with bromine water, compound \textbf{P} gives a white precipitate.
  • (C) Compound \textbf{P} is obtained by the hydrogenation of benzoyl chloride with \(Pd\) on \(BaSO_4\).
  • (D) On treating compound \textbf{P} with saturated \(NaHCO_3\) solution, brisk effervescence is observed.

Question 79:

Assertion A : For an ideal solution formed by mixing liquids P and Q, \(\Delta_{mix} H = 0\) and \(\Delta_{mix} V = 0\).

Reason R : No interactions occur between P and Q.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.

  • (A) Both \textbf{A} and \textbf{R} are correct but \textbf{R} is \textbf{NOT} the correct explanation of \textbf{A}
  • (B) \textbf{A} is correct but \textbf{R} is not correct
  • (C) \textbf{A} is not correct but \textbf{R} is correct
  • (D) Both \textbf{A} and \textbf{R} are correct and \textbf{R} is the correct explanation of \textbf{A}

Question 80:

Match the vitamins in List I with their sources in List II:



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I

Question 81:

Among the following, the compound having conjugated double bonds is

  • (A) hepta-1,4-diene
  • (B) hepta-1,5-diene
  • (C) hepta-1,6-diene
  • (D) hepta-1,3-diene

Question 82:

One of the products formed in the following reaction is









  • (A) figA
  • (B) figB
  • (C) figC
  • (D) figD

Question 83:

Two moles of an ideal gas undergo free expansion from \(10 L\) to \(100 L\) at \(300 K\). The values of \(\Delta S_{system}\) and \(\Delta S_{surroundings}\) are (\(R\) is universal gas constant):

  • (A) \(\Delta S_{system} = 4.606\ R\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = -4.606\ R\)
  • (B) \(\Delta S_{system} = 0\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 4.606\ R\)
  • (C) \(\Delta S_{system} = 4.606\ R\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 0\)
  • (D) \(\Delta S_{system} = 0\); \(\Delta S_{surroundings} = 0\)

Question 84:

Among the following options, the correct trend in the electron gain enthalpy is

  • (A) \(Br > Cl > F > I\)
  • (B) \(Cl > F > Br > I\)
  • (C) \(I > Br > Cl > F\)
  • (D) \(F > Cl > Br > I\)

Question 85:

The correct order of solubility of the given salts in water at \(298 K\) is

  • (A) \(AgBr > Zn(OH)_2 > Hg_2Cl_2\)
  • (B) \(Hg_2Cl_2 > AgBr = Zn(OH)_2\)
  • (C) \(Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr > Hg_2Cl_2\)
  • (D) \(Hg_2Cl_2 > Zn(OH)_2 > AgBr\)

Question 86:

Consider the following reaction sequences and choose the correct option.

  • (A) \(\mathbf{K}\) and \(\mathbf{L}\) are enantiomers
  • (B) \(\mathbf{M}\) and \(\mathbf{N}\) are geometrical isomers
  • (C) \(\mathbf{M}\) and \(\mathbf{N}\) are stereoisomers
  • (D) \(\mathbf{K}\) and \(\mathbf{L}\) are geometrical isomers

Question 87:

The amount of carbon dioxide evolved upon complete combustion of \(116 g\) of \(n\)-butane is (Given: atomic mass in amu \(H=1\), \(C=12\) and \(O=16\))

  • (A) \(322 g\)
  • (B) \(176 g\)
  • (C) \(362 g\)
  • (D) \(352 g\)

Question 88:

The numbers \(17.0145\) and \(21.0235\) were rounded to three figures after the decimal point. The resulting numbers respectively, are

  • (A) \(17.015\) and \(21.023\)
  • (B) \(17.014\) and \(21.024\)
  • (C) \(17.015\) and \(21.024\)
  • (D) \(17.014\) and \(21.023\)

Question 89:

In potash alum, the ratio of \(K^{+}\) and \(SO_4^{2-}\) ions is

  • (A) \(2:1\)
  • (B) \(2:3\)
  • (C) \(3:2\)
  • (D) \(1:2\)

Question 90:

The opening between the right atrium and the right ventricle is guarded by __________.

  • (A) tricuspid valve
  • (B) semilunar valve
  • (C) sino-atrial node
  • (D) bicuspid valve

Question 91:

The inactive form of Bt toxin is converted to the active form in the insect gut

  • (A) due to acidic pH
  • (B) by proteases
  • (C) by nucleases
  • (D) due to alkaline pH

Question 92:

Match List-I with List-II.

\begin{tabular{ll
List-I & List-II

A. Transformation & I. Restriction enzyme

B. Cloning site & II. Transfer DNA to host bacteria

C. Selection & III. Replication

D. Ori & IV. Antibiotic

\end{tabular



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
  • (C) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
  • (D) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III

Question 93:

How many theca are present in each lobe of a typical bilobed angiosperm anther ?

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 8
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 2

Question 94:

Which of the following hormone is not secreted by human placenta ?

  • (A) Estrogen
  • (B) Progesterone
  • (C) LH
  • (D) hCG

Question 95:

Sperm motility is due to __________.

  • (A) ciliary movement
  • (B) amoeboid movement
  • (C) muscular movement
  • (D) flagellar movement

Question 96:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : In an experiment, Mendel observed that the F1 progeny plants are all tall and none are dwarf.

Reason R : Stem height is a contrasting trait, with tall being dominant and dwarf being recessive.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (B) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (C) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 97:

During PCR, primers bind to the DNA strands in the __________ step.

  • (A) extension
  • (B) annealing
  • (C) ligation
  • (D) denaturation

Question 98:

Which of the following plant produces non-albuminous seeds ?

  • (A) Maize
  • (B) Barley
  • (C) Pea
  • (D) Wheat

Question 99:

For a person with blood group 'O', which of the following is not a possible combination of parents' blood group genotypes ?

  • (A) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (B) Father : \(I^B i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)
  • (C) Father : \(I^A I^B\) and Mother : \(I^A i\)
  • (D) Father : \(I^A i\) and Mother : \(I^B i\)

Question 100:

Which of the following is used as a clot buster ?

  • (A) Penicillin
  • (B) Cyclosporin A
  • (C) Statins
  • (D) Streptokinase

Question 101:

Arrange the following in descending order of number of species in the Amazonian rain forest.

(a) Plants

(b) Birds

(c) Fishes

(d) Invertebrates

(e) Mammals



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) (d) \(>\) (a) \(>\) (c) \(>\) (b) \(>\) (e)
  • (B) (e) \(>\) (b) \(>\) (a) \(>\) (c) \(>\) (d)
  • (C) (b) \(>\) (a) \(>\) (d) \(>\) (c) \(>\) (e)
  • (D) (c) \(>\) (b) \(>\) (d) \(>\) (e) \(>\) (a)

Question 102:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Plasmids are autonomously replicating DNA.

Statement II : Plasmids are extrachromosomal DNA.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 103:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Forelimbs of human and bats are homologous.

Reason R : Forelimbs of humans and bats have similar anatomical structure.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (B) A is true but R is false
  • (C) A is false but R is true
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 104:

Which of the following statements about the reabsorption process in Henle's loop are correct ?

(a) The descending limb of Henle's loop is permeable to water but almost impermeable to electrolytes.

(b) Urine gets concentrated in Henle's loop.

(c) Reabsorption of \(Na^+\) and water takes place in Henle's loop.

(d) Active or passive transport of electrolytes occurs in the ascending limb of Henle's loop.



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (b), (c) and (d) only
  • (2) (a), (b) and (c) only
  • (3) (a), (b) and (d) only
  • (4) (a) and (b) only

Question 105:

Which of the following are secondary lymphoid organs ?

(a) Bone marrow

(b) Tonsils

(c) Spleen

(d) Thymus



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (b) and (c) only
  • (2) (b) and (d) only
  • (3) (a) and (d) only
  • (4) (a) and (b) only

Question 106:

Which of the following is the correct order of arrangement of vertebrate column from the head to toe ?

  • (1) Sacrum, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, cervical vertebra
  • (2) Cervical vertebra, lumbar vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum
  • (3) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, lumbar vertebra, sacrum
  • (4) Cervical vertebra, thoracic vertebra, sacrum, lumbar vertebra

Question 107:

If the diploid chromosome number of typical angiosperm is 36, what would be the chromosome number in its endosperm ?

  • (A) 36
  • (B) 54
  • (C) 72
  • (D) 18

Question 108:

Sponges exchange \(O_2\) with \(CO_2\) by

  • (A) moist cuticle
  • (B) tracheal tubes
  • (C) gills
  • (D) simple diffusion over their entire body surfaces

Question 109:

Which of the following disease is not sexually transmitted ?

  • (A) Tuberculosis
  • (B) Gonorrhoea
  • (C) Genital warts
  • (D) Syphilis

Question 110:

Which of the following in female gametophyte of an angiosperm helps in guiding the pollen tube for fertilizing the eggs ?

  • (A) Synergids
  • (B) Central cells
  • (C) Polar nucleus
  • (D) Antipodals

Question 111:

Match List-I with List-II.

\begin{tabular{ll
List-I & List-II

A. Excess growth hormone & I. Reabsorption of water and electrolytes in kidney

B. Luteinizing hormone & II. Contraction of uterus during child birth

C. Vasopressin & III. Acromegaly

D. Oxytocin & IV. Ovulation

\end{tabular



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (B) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (C) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 112:

The covering of ovum at ovulation is

  • (A) zona radiata
  • (B) zona pellucida
  • (C) chorion
  • (D) endometrium

Question 113:

Match List-I with List-II.

\begin{tabular{ll
List-I & List-II

A. Both species are harmed & I. Predation

B. One species is harmed and the other is benefited & II. Mutualism

C. Both species are benefited & III. Competition

D. One is benefited while the other has no effect & IV. Commensalism

\end{tabular



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (D) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

Question 114:

Which of the following structure is not a part of the male reproductive system ?

  • (A) Epididymis
  • (B) Vasa efferentia
  • (C) Infundibulum
  • (D) Rete testis

Question 115:

Which of the following are primary consumers in a food chain ?

  • (A) Predators
  • (B) Herbivores
  • (C) Carnivores
  • (D) Parasites

Question 116:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos islands became extinct within a decade after goats were introduced.

Reason R : Goats were more efficient at browsing than Abingdon tortoise.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (B) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (C) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 117:

Which of the following statements about lac-operon is correct ?

  • (A) Lactose activates repressor to bind to the operator
  • (B) Genes i, z, y and a share single common promoter
  • (C) Galactose can act as an inducer of lac operon
  • (D) Gene i is constitutively expressed

Question 118:

Which of the following statements is correct about Plasmodium ?

  • (A) Reproduces sexually in RBCs
  • (B) Gametocytes develop in mosquito gut
  • (C) Fertilization takes place in mosquito gut
  • (D) Reproduces sexually in liver cells

Question 119:

A population of diploid organisms is at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. If the frequency of allele A is 0.1, the frequency of AA is

  • (A) 0.02
  • (B) 0.10
  • (C) 0.99
  • (D) 0.01

Question 120:

Adaptive radiation in placental mammals and Australian Marsupials leading to similarity between distant species is an example of __________.

  • (A) convergent evolution
  • (B) founder effect
  • (C) genetic drift
  • (D) divergent evolution

Question 121:

Colostrum, secreted by mother during initial days of lactation, is abundant in

  • (A) IgM
  • (B) IgA
  • (C) IgD
  • (D) IgG

Question 122:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : In recombinant DNA technology, lysozyme is used for disrupting bacterial cells while cellulase is used for plant cells.

Reason R : Isolation of genetic material needs disruption of cells.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (B) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (C) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 123:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Ovulation is caused by LH surge leading to rupture of Graafian follicles.

Statement II : Graafian follicle remaining after ovulation transform into corpus luteum and secretes large amount of estrogen.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 124:

Natural selection can lead to

(a) stabilisation

(b) genetic drift

(c) directional change

(d) disruption



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (a), (c) and (d) only
  • (2) (a), (b), (c) and (d)
  • (3) (a) and (c) only
  • (4) (a) only

Question 125:

The method of directly injecting a sperm into ovum in assisted reproductive technology is called :

  • (A) Zygote intra fallopian transfer (ZIFT)
  • (B) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
  • (C) Embryo transfer (ET)
  • (D) Gamete intra fallopian transfer (GIFT)

Question 126:

Which of the following is used as an effective sedative and painkiller for treating post-surgery patients ?

  • (A) Antibiotics
  • (B) Morphine
  • (C) Anti-retroviral drugs
  • (D) Interferon

Question 127:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Down's syndrome is caused by the absence of one of the X-chromosomes.

Statement II : Turner's syndrome is caused by the presence of an additional copy of the chromosomes.

In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 128:

Which of the following is not evidence for evolution ?

  • (A) Paleontological evidence from fossil records
  • (B) Embryological support for evolution as proposed by Ernst Haeckel
  • (C) Divergent evolution of anatomical structures such as forelimbs
  • (D) Convergent evolution of traits like wings of birds and butterflies

Question 129:

Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.

Assertion A : The logistic growth model of populations is considered more realistic than the exponential growth model.

Reason R : Resources are finite.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A
  • (B) A is correct but R is not correct
  • (C) A is not correct but R is correct
  • (D) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A

Question 130:

Given below are two statements :

Statement I : Modern \textit{Homo sapiens arose in Africa and moved across continents.

Statement II : \textit{Homo sapiens arose around 75000 to 10000 years ago.

In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

  • (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
  • (B) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  • (C) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
  • (D) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

Question 131:

Consider a population of 10 million cells. Given the per-capita birth rate of 0.002 (per unit time) and the per-capita death rate of 0.002 (per unit time), the expected number of cells after 10 generations is

  • (A) 5 million
  • (B) 10 million
  • (C) 100 million
  • (D) 1 million

Question 132:

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(a) Energy flow from producers to consumers is unidirectional

(b) Energy pyramid can never be inverted

(c) Transfer of energy follows the 1% law



Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

  • (1) (a) and (b) only
  • (2) (a) and (c) only
  • (3) (b) and (c) only
  • (4) (a), (b) and (c)

Question 133:

Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system by the release of __________.

  • (A) acetyl coenzyme A
  • (B) cyclic guanine monophosphate
  • (C) cyclic adenine monophosphate
  • (D) acetyl choline

Question 134:

Which of the following enzymes synthesizes precursor mRNA ?

  • (A) RNA polymerase II
  • (B) RNA polymerase III
  • (C) DNA polymerase
  • (D) RNA polymerase I

NEET Re-Exam Pattern 2026

Parameter Details
Exam Mode Offline (Pen-and-Paper, OMR Based)
Duration 3 Hours and 15 minutes (195 Minutes)
Total Questions 180 (All Compulsory)
Subjects Physics, Chemistry, Biology (Botany and Zoology)
Question Type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
Total Marks 720
Marking Scheme
  • +4 (Correct)
  • −1 (Incorrect)
  • 0 (Unattempted)

NEET 2026 Subject-Wise Weightage

Subject Number of Questions Marks
Physics 45 180
Chemistry 45 180
Biology 90 360
Total 180 720

NEET 2026 Re-Exam Answer Key Live