The JNTU Hyderabad will conduct the TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering Exam on May 4th, 2025, between 3:00 P.M. and 6:00 P.M.

Candidates appearing in this Shift can expect the TS EAMCET Question Paper to follow the standard format of 160 questions, divided into Mathematics (80), Physics (40), and Chemistry (40).

The Exam will be held in online mode with all questions being multiple choice and of 1 mark each, without any negative marking.

The TS EAMCET 2025 May 4th Shift 2 Question Paper with solution PDF is available here.

TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering May 4 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering May 4 Shift 2 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solution
TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering May 4 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF


Question 1:

The domain and range of \(f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{|x|-x^2}}\) are A and B respectively. Then \(A \cup B = \) ?

  • (A) \(\mathbb{R} - \{-1,0,1\}\)
  • (B) \((-1, \infty) - \{0,1\}\)
  • (C) \((-1,0) \cup (0,1) \cup [2, \infty)\)
  • (D) \((-1,1) \cup [2, \infty)\)

Question 2:

A function \(f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\) defined by \(f(x) = \begin{cases} 2x+3, & x \le 4/3
-3x^2+8x, & x > 4/3 \end{cases}\) is

  • (A) One-one function
  • (B) not onto
  • (C) a bijective function
  • (D) constant function

Question 3:

If \(2^{4n+3} + 3^{3n+1}\) is divisible by P for all natural numbers \(n\), then P is

  • (A) an even integer
  • (B) an odd integer, not a prime
  • (C) an odd prime integer
  • (D) an integer less than 9

Question 4:

A is a \(3 \times 3\) matrix satisfying \(A^3 - 5A^2 + 7A + I = 0\). If \(A^5 - 6A^4 + 12A^3 - 6A^2 + 2A + 2I = lA + mI\), then \(l + m =\)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2

Question 5:

If \(A = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 & 2 \\
1 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & x & 1 \end{pmatrix}\), \(A^{-1} = \frac{1}{2} \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -1 & 1 \\
-8 & 6 & 2y \\
5 & -3 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\) then the point \((x,y)\) lies on the curve

  • (A) \(y = 3x^2 - 5x - 1\)
  • (B) \(y = \log_{7/5}(2^x + 2^{-x})\)
  • (C) \(y = \frac{e^x + 1}{e^x - 1}\)
  • (D) \(3x^2y - 5xy + 12 = 0\)

Question 6:

Consider a homogeneous system of three linear equations in three unknowns represented by \(AX=O\). If \(X = \begin{pmatrix} l \\
m
0 \end{pmatrix}, l \neq 0, m \neq 0, l, m \in \mathbb{R}\) represents an infinite number of solutions of this system, then rank of A is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) does not exist

Question 7:

The number of real values of 'a', for which the system of equations \(2x+3y+az = 0\), \(x+ay-2z=0\) and \(3x+y+3z = 0\) has nontrivial solutions is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 0
  • (D) Infinity

Question 8:

If the eight vertices of a regular octagon are given by the complex numbers \(\frac{1}{x_j-2i}\) (\(j=1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8\)), then the radius of the circumcircle of the octagon is

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) i/4
  • (C) i
  • (D) 2

Question 9:

If \(|Z_1 - 3 - 4i| = 5\) and \(|Z_2| = 15\) then the sum of the maximum and minimum values of \(|Z_1 - Z_2|\) is

  • (A) 75
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 35
  • (D) 20

Question 10:

If \(Z=r(\cos\theta+i\sin\theta)\), \((\theta \neq -\pi/2)\) is a solution of \(x^3 = i\), then \(r^9(\cos(9\theta)+i\sin(9\theta)) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} + \frac{1}{2}i\)
  • (B) 1
  • (C) \(-i\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} + \frac{1}{2}i\)

Question 11:

If \(\omega \neq 1\) is a cube root of unity, then one root among the \(7^{th}\) roots of \((1+\omega)\) is

  • (A) \(1+\omega\)
  • (B) \(1-\omega\)
  • (C) \(\omega-\omega^2\)
  • (D) \(\omega - \omega^2\)

Question 12:

If \(f(x) = x^2 - 2(4K-1)x + g(K) > 0\) \(\forall x \in \mathbb{R}\) and for \(K \in (a,b)\), and if \(g(K) = 15K^2 - 2K - 7\), then

  • (A) g(K) attains its maximum at the midpoint of (a,b)
  • (B) g(K) attains its minimum at two points in (a,b)
  • (C) g(K) attains its both maximum and minimum in (a,b)
  • (D) g(K) attains no maximum and no minimum in (a,b)

Question 13:

If local maximum of \(f(x) = \frac{ax+b}{(x-1)(x-4)}\) exists at \((2,-1)\), then \(a+b=\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 2

Question 14:

If \(1+2i\) is a root of the equation \(x^4 - 3x^3 + 8x^2 - 7x + 5 = 0\), then sum of the squares of the other roots is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2+i
  • (C) -4-4i
  • (D) 8/3

Question 15:

If \(\alpha, \beta, \gamma\) are the roots of the equation \(x^3 + \frac{a}{2}x + b = 0\) and \((\alpha-\beta)(\alpha-\gamma)\), \((\beta-\alpha)(\beta-\gamma)\), \((\gamma-\alpha)(\gamma-\beta)\) are the roots of the equation \((y+a)^3 + K(y+a)^2 + L = 0\), then \(\frac{L}{K}= \)

  • (A) \(\frac{32b^2}{a}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{16a^2}{b}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{18b^2}{a}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{12a^2}{b}\)

Question 16:

All the letters of the word MOTHER are arranged in all possible ways and the resulting words (may or may not have meaning) are arranged as in the dictionary. The number of words that appear after the word MOTHER is

  • (A) 309
  • (B) 310
  • (C) 410
  • (D) 411

Question 17:

The number of positive integral solutions of \(\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} = \frac{1}{2025}\) is

  • (A) 105
  • (B) 45
  • (C) 135
  • (D) 25

Question 18:

The number of positive integral solutions of \(xyz = 60\) is

  • (A) \(^{59}C_2\)
  • (B) \(^4C_2 \times ^3C_2 \times ^3C_2\)
  • (C) \(^4C_3\)
  • (D) \(^3C_1 \times ^4C_0 \times ^4C_4\)

Question 19:

Numerically greatest term in the expansion of \((3x-4y)^{23}\) when \(x=\frac{1}{6}\) and \(y=\frac{1}{8}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{^{23}C_{11}}{6^{23}}\)
  • (B) \(^{23}C_{11} (\frac{8}{6})^{23}\)
  • (C) \(^{23}C_{11} (\frac{6}{8})^{23}\)
  • (D) \(^{23}C_{11}\)

Question 20:

Let K be the number of rational terms in the expansion of \((\sqrt{2}+\sqrt[6]{3})^{6144}\). If the coefficient of \(x^P (P \in N)\) in the expansion of \(\frac{1}{(1+x)(1+x^2)(1+x^4)(1+x^8)(1+x^{16})}\) is \(a_P\), then \(a_K - a_{K+1} - a_{K-1} =\)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) -2
  • (D) 2

Question 21:

If \(\frac{3x+1}{(x-1)^2(x^2+1)} = \frac{A}{x-1} + \frac{B}{(x-1)^2} + \frac{Cx+D}{x^2+1}\), then \(2(A-C+B+D)=\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) -1

Question 22:

If \(\tan(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\alpha}{2}) = \tan^3(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\beta}{2})\), then \(\frac{3+\sin^2\beta}{1+3\sin^2\beta}=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\cos\beta}{\cos\alpha}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\cos^3\alpha}{\sin^3\beta}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sin\alpha}{\sin\beta}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\cos\alpha}{\cos\beta}\)

Question 23:

If \(P = \sin\frac{2\pi}{7} + \sin\frac{4\pi}{7} + \sin\frac{8\pi}{7}\) and \(Q = \cos\frac{2\pi}{7} + \cos\frac{4\pi}{7} + \cos\frac{8\pi}{7}\), then the point (P,Q) lies on the circle of radius

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) 4

Question 24:

If \(\cos\alpha = \frac{l\cos\beta+m}{l+m\cos\beta}\), then \(\frac{\tan^2(\alpha/2)}{\tan^2(\beta/2)} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{l-m}{l+m}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{l+m}{l-m}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{l^2-m^2}{l^2+m^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{l-m}{l+m}\) (Duplicate option)

Question 25:

If a, b are real numbers and \(\alpha\) is a real root of \(x^2+12+3\sin(a+bx)+6x=0\) then the value of \(\cos(a+b\alpha)\) for the least positive value of \(a+b\alpha\) is

  • (A) -1
  • (B) \(1/\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(1/2\)
  • (D) 0

Question 26:

The number of real solutions of \(\tan^{-1}x + \tan^{-1}(2x) = \frac{\pi}{4}\) is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 0
  • (D) infinitely many

Question 27:

Consider the following statements
Statement-I: \(\cosh^{-1}x = \tanh^{-1}x\) has no solution
Statement-II: \(\cosh^{-1}x = \coth^{-1}x\) has only one solution
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both statements I and II are true
  • (B) Both statements I and II are false
  • (C) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

Question 28:

If the angular bisector of the angle A of the triangle ABC meets its circumcircle at E and the opposite side BC at D, then \(DE\cos\frac{A}{2} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{a^2}{2(b+c)}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{b^2}{c+a}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{a}{b+c}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2a}{a+b+c}\)

Question 29:

In a triangle ABC, \(a=5, b=4\) and \(\tan\frac{C}{2} = \sqrt{\frac{7}{9}}\), then its inradius r =

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{7}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{9}{\sqrt{7}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{7}}\)

Question 30:

Two adjacent sides of a triangle are represented by the vectors \(2\vec{i}+\vec{j}-2\vec{k}\) and \(2\sqrt{3}\vec{i}-2\sqrt{3}\vec{j}+\sqrt{3}\vec{k}\). Then the least angle of the triangle and perimeter of the triangle are respectively

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{3}; 3(3+\sqrt{3})\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{12}; 6+3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{2}; 12\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{6}; 9+3\sqrt{3}\)

Question 31:

A plane \(\pi_1\) contains the vectors \(\vec{i}+\vec{j}\) and \(\vec{i}+2\vec{j}\). Another plane \(\pi_2\) contains the vectors \(2\vec{i}-\vec{j}\) and \(3\vec{i}+2\vec{k}\). \(\vec{a}\) is a vector parallel to the line of intersection of \(\pi_1\) and \(\pi_2\). If the angle \(\theta\) between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{i}-2\vec{j}+2\vec{k}\) is acute, then \(\theta=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{4}{3\sqrt{5}})\)
  • (D) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}})\)

Question 32:

In a quadrilateral ABCD, \(\angle A = \frac{2\pi}{3}\) and AC is the bisector of angle A. If \(15|AC| = 5|AD| = 3|AB|\), then the angle between \(\vec{AB}\) and \(\vec{BC}\) is

  • (A) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{7}})\)
  • (B) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2\sqrt{7}})\)
  • (C) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{4\sqrt{3}}{5\sqrt{7}})\)
  • (D) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4\sqrt{7}})\)

Question 33:

\(\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}\) are three non-coplanar and mutually perpendicular vectors of same magnitude K. \(\vec{r}\) is any vector satisfying \(\vec{a}\times((\vec{r}-\vec{b})\times\vec{a}) + \vec{b}\times((\vec{r}-\vec{c})\times\vec{b}) + \vec{c}\times((\vec{r}-\vec{a})\times\vec{c}) = \vec{0}\), then \(\vec{r} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{K^2(\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c})}{3K^2-1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c}}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{K(\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c})}{K+1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c}}{K^2+1}\)

Question 34:

Consider the following
Assertion (A): The two lines \(\vec{r} = \vec{a}+t(\vec{b})\) and \(\vec{r}=\vec{b}+s(\vec{a})\) intersect each other.
Reason (R): The shortest distance between the lines \(\vec{r}=\vec{p}+t(\vec{q})\) and \(\vec{r}=\vec{c}+s(\vec{d})\) is equal to the length of projection of the vector \((\vec{p}-\vec{c})\) on \((\vec{q}\times\vec{d})\).
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 35:

The mean deviation about median of the numbers \(3x, 6x, 9x, ..., 81x\) is 91, then \(|x|=\)

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 5/2
  • (C) 9/2
  • (D) 8

Question 36:

Functions are formed from the set \(A = \{a_1, a_2, a_3\}\) to another set \(B = \{b_1, b_2, b_3, b_4, b_5\}\). If a function is selected at random, the probability that it is a one-one function is

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 13/25
  • (C) 3/5
  • (D) 12/25

Question 37:

A and B are two events of a random experiment such that \(P(B)=0.4\), \(P(A \cap \bar{B}) = 0.5\), \(P(A \cup B) + P(A|B) = 1.15\), then \(P(A)=\)

  • (A) 0.9
  • (B) 0.8
  • (C) 0.7
  • (D) 0.25

Question 38:

There are two boxes each containing 10 balls. In each box, few of them are black balls and rest are white. A ball is drawn at random from one of the boxes and found that it is black. If the probability that the black ball drawn is from the second box is \(\frac{1}{5}\), then number of black balls in the first box is

  • (A) 5 or 10
  • (B) 2 or 7
  • (C) 4 or 8
  • (D) 3 or 6 or 9

Question 39:

In a shelf there are three mathematics and two physics books. A student takes a book randomly. If he randomly takes, successively for three times by replacing the book already taken every time, then the mean of the number of mathematics books which is treated as random variable is

  • (A) 3/2
  • (B) 129/125
  • (C) 9/5
  • (D) 174/125

Question 40:

In a Poisson distribution, if \(\frac{P(X=5)}{P(X=2)} = \frac{1}{7500}\) and \(\frac{P(X=5)}{P(X=3)} = \frac{1}{500}\), then the mean of the distribution is

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 3

Question 41:

A(2,0), B(0,2), C(-2,0) are three points. Let a, b, c be the perpendicular distances from a variable point P on to the lines AB, BC and CA respectively. If a, b, c are in arithmetic progression, then the locus of P is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2}|y| = 2|x-y+2| - |x+y-2|\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}|y| = |x-y+2| - |x+y-2|\)
  • (C) \(2|x-y+2| = \frac{|x+y-2|}{\sqrt{2}} + \frac{|x-y-2|}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \(2|x-y+2| = |x+(\sqrt{2}+1)y+2|\)

Question 42:

When the coordinate axes are rotated about the origin through an angle \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) in the positive direction, the equation \(ax^2+2hxy+by^2=c\) is transformed to \(25x'^2+9y'^2=225\), then \((a+2h+b-\sqrt{c})^2=\)

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 1225
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 225

Question 43:

\(y-x=0\) is the equation of a side of a triangle ABC. The orthocentre and circumcentre of the triangle ABC are respectively (5,8) and (2,3). The reflection of orthocentre with respect to any side of the triangle lies on its circumcircle. Then the radius of the circumcircle of the triangle is

  • (A) 5
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{5}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{10}\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{10}\)

Question 44:

Two families of lines are given by \(ax+by+c=0\) and \(4a^2+9b^2-c^2-12ab=0\). Then the line common to both the families is

  • (A) a line passing through (-1,2) and (2,3)
  • (B) a line passing through (3,2) and (2,3)
  • (C) a line passing through (-3,-2) and (-2,-3)
  • (D) a line passing through (2,-3) and (-2,3)

Question 45:

Two non parallel sides of a rhombus are parallel to the lines \(x+y-1=0\) and \(7x-y-5=0\). If (1,3) is the centre of the rhombus and one of its vertices \(A(\alpha, \beta)\) lies on \(15x-5y=6\), then one of the possible values of \((\alpha+\beta)\) is

  • (A) 18/5
  • (B) 12/5
  • (C) 37/5
  • (D) 39/5

Question 46:

If the equations \(3x^2+2hxy-3y^2=0\) and \(3x^2+2hxy-3y^2+2x-4y+c=0\) represent the four sides of a square, then \(\frac{h}{c}= \)

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) -2/3
  • (C) -3
  • (D) -4

Question 47:

The radius of the circle having three chords along y-axis, the line \(y=x\) and the line \(2x+3y=10\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{10}{\sqrt{13}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{26}}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{\sqrt{13}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{10}{3}\)

Question 48:

Among the chords of the circle \(x^2+y^2=75\), the number of chords having their midpoints on the line \(x=8\) and having their slopes as integers is

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2

Question 49:

The equation of the circle which touches the circle \(S \equiv x^2+y^2-10x-4y+19=0\) at the point (2,3) internally and having radius equal to half of the radius of the circle S=0 is

  • (A) \(x^2+y^2+7x+5y+64=0\)
  • (B) \(x^2+y^2-7x-5y+16=0\)
  • (C) \(x^2+y^2-14x-10y+16=0\)
  • (D) \(x^2+y^2-5x-7y+16=0\)

Question 50:

If \(P(\frac{7}{5}, \frac{6}{5})\) is the inverse point of \(A(1,2)\) with respect to a circle with centre \(C(2,0)\), then the radius of that circle is

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 3
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) 1

Question 51:

If the circle \(S=0\) intersect the three circles \(S_1 = x^2+y^2+4x-7=0\), \(S_2 = x^2+y^2+y=0\) and \(S_3 = x^2+y^2+\frac{3}{2}x+\frac{5}{2}y-\frac{9}{2}=0\) orthogonally, then the radical axis of \(S=0\) and \(S_1=0\) is

  • (A) \(4x-y-7=0\)
  • (B) \(x+y-3=0\)
  • (C) \(4x+y-3=0\)
  • (D) \(x-y-2=0\)

Question 52:

If a tangent to the circle \(x^2+y^2+2x+2y+1=0\) is radical axis of the circles \(x^2+y^2+2gx+2fy+c=0\) and \(2x^2+2y^2+3x+8y+2c=0\), then

  • (A) \(g=\frac{3}{7}\) or \(f=4\)
  • (B) \(g=\frac{3}{2}\) or \(f=\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(g=\frac{3}{5}\) or \(f=1\)
  • (D) \(g=\frac{3}{4}\) or \(f=2\)

Question 53:

If the angle between the tangents drawn to the parabola \(y^2=4x\) from the points on the line \(4x-y=0\) is \(\frac{\pi}{3}\), then the sum of the abscissae of all such points is

  • (A) 5/3
  • (B) 4/7
  • (C) 2/5
  • (D) 10/13

Question 54:

The normal at a point on the parabola \(y^2=4x\) passes through a point P. Two more normals to this parabola also pass through P. If the centroid of the triangle formed by the feet of these three normals is G(2,0), then the abscissa of P is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) -4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) -5

Question 55:

The circumcenter of the equilateral triangle having the three points \(\theta_1, \theta_2, \theta_3\) lying on the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1\) as its vertices is \((r,s)\). Then the average of \(\cos(\theta_1-\theta_2), \cos(\theta_2-\theta_3)\) and \(\cos(\theta_3-\theta_1)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}[\frac{3r^2}{a^2}+\frac{3s^2}{b^2}-1]\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}[\frac{r^2}{a^2}+\frac{s^2}{b^2}]\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}[\frac{r^2}{a^2}+\frac{s^2}{b^2}]\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{3}[\frac{r^2}{a^2}+\frac{s^2}{b^2}+\frac{rs}{ab}]\)

Question 56:

The ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1\) (\(b>a\)) is an ellipse with eccentricity \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\). If the angle of intersection between the ellipse and parabola \(y^2=4ax\) is \(\theta\), then the coordinates of the point \(\frac{20}{3}\) on the ellipse is

  • (A) \((\frac{a}{2}, \frac{a}{2})\)
  • (B) \((\frac{a}{2}, \frac{3a}{2})\)
  • (C) \((\frac{\sqrt{5}a}{2}, \frac{3\sqrt{5}a}{2\sqrt{2}})\)
  • (D) \((\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{\sqrt{3}a}{\sqrt{2}})\)

Question 57:

The number of common tangents that can be drawn to the curves \(\frac{x^2}{16}-\frac{y^2}{9}=1\) and \(x^2+y^2=16\) is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 58:

Let A(\(\alpha\),4,7) and B(3,\(\beta\),8) be two points in space. If YZ plane and ZX plane respectively divide the line segment joining the points A and B in the ratio 2:3 and 4:5, then the point C which divides AB in the ratio \(\alpha:\beta\) externally is

  • (A) \((\frac{16}{3}, 10, 3)\)
  • (B) \((-\frac{16}{3}, \frac{28}{3}, \frac{19}{3})\)
  • (C) \((-\frac{16}{3}, -\frac{28}{3}, -\frac{19}{3})\)
  • (D) \((-\frac{16}{3}, 10, \frac{19}{3})\)

Question 59:

The direction ratios of the line bisecting the angle between the x-axis and the line having direction ratios (3, -1, 5) are

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{7}}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{7}}, \frac{5}{\sqrt{7}}\)
  • (B) \(3+\sqrt{35}, -1, 5\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{35}-3, 1, -\sqrt{5}\) (The image is garbled, assuming it should be \(\sqrt{35}-3, 1, -5\))
  • (D) \(\sqrt{35}-3, 1, 5\)

Question 60:

If the plane \(-4x-2y+2z+\alpha=0\) is at a distance of two units from the plane \(2x+y-z+1=0\), then the product of all the possible values of \(\alpha\) is

  • (A) -23
  • (B) 42
  • (C) -92
  • (D) 72

Question 61:

\(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sqrt[3]{\cos x} - \sqrt{\cos x}}{\sin^2 x} =\)

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 1/12
  • (C) 1/6
  • (D) 2/3

Question 62:

Let \(f:[-1,2] \to \mathbb{R}\) be defined by \(f(x) = [x^2-3]\) where \([.]\) denotes greatest integer function, then the number of points of discontinuity for the function \(f\) in \((-1,2)\) is

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 63:

If \(f(x) = \begin{cases} x^2 \cos(\frac{\pi}{x}), & x \neq 0
0, & x=0 \end{cases}\), then at \(x=0\), \(f(x)\) is

(Note: The question image says 'at \(x=2\)', but this is a standard problem about the point \(x=0\). At \(x=2\), the function is clearly differentiable by standard rules. We assume the question meant \(x=0\).)

  • (A) Differentiable
  • (B) Continuous but not differentiable
  • (C) Right differentiable only
  • (D) Left differentiable only

Question 64:

The set of all values of x for which \(f(x) = ||x|-1|\) is differentiable is

  • (A) \(\{-1,1\}\)
  • (B) \(\mathbb{R} - \{-1,1,0\}\)
  • (C) \(\mathbb{R}\)
  • (D) \((0, \infty)\)

Question 65:

If \(y=f(x)^{g(x)}\) and \(\frac{dy}{dx} = y[H(x)f'(x)+G(x)g'(x)]\), then \(\int \frac{G(x)H(x)f'(x)}{g(x)}dx =\)

  • (A) \(\log(\log f(x)) + c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{[\log f(x)]^2}{2} + c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\log f(x)}{2} + c\)
  • (D) \(x^2+c\)

Question 66:

If \(x=t-\sin t, y=1-\cos t\) and \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}=-1\) at \(t=K, K>0\), then \(\lim_{t \to K} \frac{y}{x} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{\pi}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi-2}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{\pi-2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 67:

For the curve \((\frac{x}{a})^n + (\frac{y}{b})^n = 2\), (\(n \in N\) \& \(n>1\)) the line \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}=2\) is

  • (A) a normal for all values of n
  • (B) a normal for only values of n more than Max\{a,b\}
  • (C) a tangent for all values of n
  • (D) a tangent for only values of n more than Min\{a,b\}

Question 68:

The height of a cone with semi vertical angle \(\pi/3\) is increasing at the rate of 2 units/min. The rate at which the radius of the cone is to be decreased so as to have a fixed volume always is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 69:

The function \(f(x)=2x^3-9ax^2+12a^2x+1\) where \(a>0\) attains its local maximum and local minimum at p and q respectively. If \(p^2=q\) then a =

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 1/2

Question 70:

Consider all functions given in List-I in the interval [1,3]. The List-2 has the values of 'c' obtained by applying Lagrange's mean value theorem on the functions of List-1. Match the functions and values of 'c'.

  • (A) A-II, B-V, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-V

Question 71:

If the percentage error in the radius of a circle is 3, then the percentage error in its area is

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 3/2
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4

Question 72:

If \(I_1 = \int \frac{e^x}{e^{4x}+e^{2x}+1}dx\), \(I_2 = \int \frac{e^{-x}}{e^{-4x}+e^{-2x}+1}dx\), then \(I_2-I_1=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\log\left(\frac{e^{2x}-e^{-2x}+1}{e^{2x}+e^{-2x}-1}\right)+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\log\left(\frac{e^{2x}-e^{-2x}-1}{e^{2x}+e^{-2x}+1}\right)+c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\log\left(\frac{e^{2x}+e^{-x}+1}{e^{2x}+e^{-x}-1}\right)+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\log\left(\frac{e^x+e^{-x}-1}{e^x+e^{-x}+1}\right)+c\)

Question 73:

If \(\int \frac{\sqrt{1-\sqrt{x}}}{\sqrt{x(1+\sqrt{x})}}dx = 2f(x)-2\sin^{-1}\sqrt{x}+c\), then \(f(x)=\)

  • (A) \(Sech^{-1}\sqrt{x}\)
  • (B) \(Cosec^{-1}\sqrt{x}\)
  • (C) \(\log\left(\frac{1+x}{x}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\log\left(\frac{\sqrt{1+x}-1}{\sqrt{x}}\right)\)

Question 74:

If \(\int \frac{3x+2}{4x^2+4x+5}dx = A\log(4x^2+4x+5)+B\tan^{-1}(\frac{2x+1}{2})+c\), then \(A+B=\)

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 3/4
  • (C) 3/8
  • (D) 1/8

Question 75:

Consider the following
Assertion (A): \(\int \sqrt{x-3}(\sin^{-1}(\log x) + \cos^{-1}(\log x))dx = \frac{\pi}{3}(x-3)^{3/2}+c\)
Reason (R): \(\sin^{-1}(f(x))+\cos^{-1}(f(x))=\frac{\pi}{2}\), \(|f(x)|\le 1\)
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 76:

\(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{(2n(2n-1)...(n+2)(n+1))^{1/n}}{n} =\)

  • (A) \(\int_0^1 \log x dx\)
  • (B) \(\int_0^1 x \log x dx\)
  • (C) \(\int_0^1 (x+1)\log(x+1) dx\)
  • (D) \(\int_0^1 \log(1+x) dx\)

Question 77:

The area of the region bounded by \(y=x^3\), x-axis, \(x=-2\) and \(x=4\) is

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 81/4
  • (C) 66/5
  • (D) 68

Question 78:

If \(\int_0^{\pi/2} \tan^{14}(x/2)dx = 2\left[\sum_{n=1}^7 f(n) - \frac{\pi}{4}\right]\), then \(f(n)=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{(-1)^n}{n-1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{2n-1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n+1}\)

Question 79:

The differential equation of the family of all circles of radius 'a' is

  • (A) \(y_1y_2 + (1+y_1^2)=a\)
  • (B) \((1+y_1^2)^3 = a^2y_2^2\)
  • (C) \(1+y_1^2 = y_2^2+a^2\)
  • (D) \(y_2^2+1 = y_1^2+a^2\)

Question 80:

If the general solution of \((1+y^2)dx = (\tan^{-1}y - x)dy\) is \(x = f(y)+ce^{-\tan^{-1}y}\), then \(f(y)=\)

  • (A) \(\tan^{-1}y\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}y+1\)
  • (C) \(\tan^{-1}y-1\)
  • (D) \(y\tan^{-1}y\)

Question 81:

The force of mutual attraction between any two objects by virtue of their masses is

  • (A) Gravitational force
  • (B) Electromagnetic force
  • (C) Strong nuclear force
  • (D) Weak nuclear force

Question 82:

The error in the measurement of force acting normally on a square plate is 3%. If the error in the measurement of the side of the plate is 1%, then the error in the determination of the pressure acting on the plate is

  • (A) 4%
  • (B) 3%
  • (C) 5%
  • (D) 6%

Question 83:

For a particle moving along a straight line path, the displacements in third and fifth seconds of its motion are 10 m and 18 m respectively. The speed of the particle at time t=4s is

  • (A) 32 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 8 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 12 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 16 ms\(^{-1}\)

Question 84:

The vertical displacement (y in metre) of a projectile in terms of its horizontal displacement (x in metre) is given by \(y=(\sqrt{3}x - 0.2x^2)\). The time of flight of the projectile is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^{-2}\))

  • (A) \(5\sqrt{3}\)s
  • (B) \(\sqrt{3}\)s
  • (C) 0.2s
  • (D) \(0.2\sqrt{3}\)s

Question 85:

A block of mass \(\sqrt{2}\) kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A force 'F' acting upwards at an angle of 45\(^\circ\) with the horizontal causes the block to start motion. If the coefficient of static friction between the surface and the block is 0.25, the magnitude of the force 'F' is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^{-2}\))

  • (A) 0.5 N
  • (B) 2 N
  • (C) 4 N
  • (D) 8 N

Question 86:

If the kinetic energy of a body moving with a velocity of \((2\vec{i}+3\vec{j}-4\vec{k})\) ms\(^{-1}\) is 87 J, then the mass of the body is

  • (A) 3 kg
  • (B) 12 kg
  • (C) 9 kg
  • (D) 6 kg

Question 87:

A body of mass 0.5 kg is supplied with a power 'P' (in watt) which varies with time 't' (in second) as \(P=3t^2+3\). If the velocity of the body at time t=0 is zero, then the velocity of the body at time t=3s is

  • (A) 12 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 24 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 18 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 36 ms\(^{-1}\)

Question 88:

A solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. The ratio of the rotational and translational kinetic energies of the sphere is

  • (A) 3:5
  • (B) 2:5
  • (C) 4:5
  • (D) 7:5

Question 89:

If the length of a thin uniform rod is 'L' and the radius of gyration of the rod about an axis perpendicular to its length and passing through one end is K, then K:L=

  • (A) 1:\(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) 1:\(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) 1:3
  • (D) 1:2

Question 90:

The force (F in newton) acting on a particle of mass 90 g executing simple harmonic motion is given by \(F+0.04\pi^2y=0\), where y is displacement of the particle in meter. If the amplitude of the particle is \(\frac{6}{\pi}\) m, then the maximum velocity of the particle is

  • (A) 6 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 2 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 8 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 4 ms\(^{-1}\)

Question 91:

Which of the following is incorrect about the gravitational force between two bodies?

  • (A) Conservative force
  • (B) Attractive force
  • (C) Not a central force
  • (D) Not a contact force

Question 92:

A steel rod with a circular cross-section of diameter 1cm and another steel rod with a square cross-section of side 1cm have equal mass. If the two rods are subjected to same tension, the ratio of the elongations of the two rods is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2/\(\pi\)
  • (C) 4/\(\pi^2\)
  • (D) 16/\(\pi^2\)

Question 93:

A cube of side 40 cm is floating with \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of its volume immersed in water. When a circular disc is placed on the cube, it floats with \(\frac{2}{5}\)th of its volume immersed in water. The mass of the disc is

  • (A) 6.4 kg
  • (B) 9.6 kg
  • (C) 3.2 kg
  • (D) 1.6 kg

Question 94:

The maximum length of water column that can stay without falling in a vertically held capillary tube of diameter 1mm and open at both the ends is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^{-2}\) and surface tension of water = 0.07 Nm\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) 2.8 cm
  • (B) 5.6 cm
  • (C) 1.4 cm
  • (D) 0 cm

Question 95:

A steel pendulum clock manufactured at 32\(^\circ\)C and working at 47\(^\circ\)C is nearly (Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = \(12 \times 10^{-6}\) /\(^\circ\)C)

  • (A) 7.8 s slow per day
  • (B) 7.8 s fast per day
  • (C) 15.6 s slow per day
  • (D) 15.6 s fast per day

Question 96:

A metal metre scale that is accurate up to 0.5 mm is made at a temperature of 25\(^\circ\)C. The range of temperatures within which it can be used is (Coefficient of linear expansion of the metal = \(10^{-5}\) /\(^\circ\)C)

  • (A) +25\(^\circ\)C to +75\(^\circ\)C
  • (B) +25\(^\circ\)C to +50\(^\circ\)C
  • (C) -25\(^\circ\)C to +75\(^\circ\)C
  • (D) 0\(^\circ\)C to +50\(^\circ\)C

Question 97:

A Carnot engine uses diatomic gas as a working substance. During the adiabatic expansion part of the cycle, if the volume of the gas becomes 32 times its initial volume, then the efficiency of the engine is

  • (A) 100%
  • (B) 75%
  • (C) 50%
  • (D) 25%

Question 98:

The ratio of the average translational kinetic energies of hydrogen and oxygen at the same temperature is

  • (A) 1:8
  • (B) 1:4
  • (C) 1:1
  • (D) 1:6

Question 99:

The air columns in two tubes closed at one end vibrating in their fundamental modes produce 2 beats per second. The number of beats produced per second when the same tubes are vibrated in their fundamental mode with their both ends open are

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 100:

A car moving towards a cliff emits sound of frequency 'n'. If the difference in frequencies of the horn and its echo heard by the driver of the car is 10% of 'n', then the speed of the car is nearly (Speed of sound in air is 336ms\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) 16 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 18 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 30 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 33 ms\(^{-1}\)

Question 101:

A straight metal rod of length 6 cm is placed along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 9 cm such that the end of the rod closer to the mirror is at a distance of 15 cm from the pole of the mirror. The length of the image of the rod is

  • (A) 6 cm
  • (B) 12 cm
  • (C) 8.75 cm
  • (D) 6.75 cm

Question 102:

A ray of light incidents at an angle of \(9.3^\circ\) on one face of a small angle prism of refracting angle \(6^\circ\). If the ray of light emerges normally from the second face, the refractive index of the material of the prism is

  • (A) 1.40
  • (B) 1.45
  • (C) 1.55
  • (D) 1.50

Question 103:

The distance for which ray optics becomes a good approximation for an aperture of 0.3 cm and a light of wavelength 6000 \(\AA\) is

  • (A) 12 m
  • (B) 15 m
  • (C) 24 m
  • (D) 30 m

Question 104:

The electrostatic force between two charges kept in air is F. If 30% of the space between the charges is filled with a medium, then the electrostatic force between the charges becomes \(\frac{F}{2.56}\). The dielectric constant of the medium is

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 4

Question 105:

729 small identical spheres each charged to an electric potential 3V combine to form a bigger sphere. The electric potential of the bigger sphere is

  • (A) 9 V
  • (B) 729 V
  • (C) 81 V
  • (D) 243 V

Question 106:

The current amplification factor of a transistor in common emitter configuration is 80. If the emitter current is 2.43 mA, then the base current is

  • (A) 15 \(\mu\)A
  • (B) 1.5 \(\mu\)A
  • (C) 3 \(\mu\)A
  • (D) 30 \(\mu\)A

Question 107:

The area of cross-section of a potentiometer wire is \(6 \times 10^{-7}\) m\(^2\). The potential difference per unit length of the potentiometer wire when it is connected to a cell of negligible internal resistance and a resistor in series is \(0.15\) Vm\(^{-1}\). If the current through potentiometer wire is \(0.3\)A, then the resistivity of the material of the potentiometer wire is

  • (A) \(4 \times 10^{-6} \Omega\)m
  • (B) \(3 \times 10^{-7} \Omega\)m
  • (C) \(3 \times 10^{-6} \Omega\)m
  • (D) \(4 \times 10^{-7} \Omega\)m

Question 108:

As shown in the figure, a uniform straight wire of length \(30\sqrt{3}\) cm is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle ABC. A uniform magnetic field 2T is applied parallel to the side BC. If the current through the wire is 2A, the magnitude of the force on the side AC is

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\) N
  • (B) \(0.2\sqrt{3}\) N
  • (C) \(1.2\) N
  • (D) \(0.6\) N

Question 109:

A proton moving with a velocity of \(8\times 10^5\) ms\(^{-1}\) enters a uniform magnetic field normal to the direction of the magnetic field. If the radius of the circular path of the proton in the magnetic field is \(8.3\) cm, then the magnitude of the magnetic field is (Charge of proton = \(1.6\times 10^{-19}\) C and mass of the proton = \(1.66\times 10^{-27}\) kg)

  • (A) 500 mT
  • (B) 100 mT
  • (C) 200 mT
  • (D) 400 mT

Question 110:

At a certain place in the magnetic meridian, the earth's magnetic field is twice its vertical component. The ratio of horizontal component of earth's magnetic field and the total magnetic field of the earth at that place is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{3}:2\)
  • (B) 1:2
  • (C) 1:\(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) 1:3

Question 111:

A coil of resistance \(16 \Omega\) is placed with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field whose flux (\(\phi\) in \(10^{-3}\) weber) changes with time (t in second) as \(\phi = 5t^2+4t+2\). The induced current at time \(t=6\) seconds is

  • (A) 4 mA
  • (B) 2.12 mA
  • (C) 34 mA
  • (D) 74 mA

Question 112:

The small energy losses in transformers due to eddy currents can be reduced by

  • (A) winding the primary and secondary coils one over the other
  • (B) using thick wire
  • (C) using a laminated core
  • (D) using magnetic material with low hysteresis loss

Question 113:

If the electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is \(E_z = 60\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) Vm\(^{-1}\), then the magnetic field of the wave is

  • (A) \(B_y = 2\times 10^{-7}\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) T
  • (B) \(B_z = 2\times 10^{-7}\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) T
  • (C) \(B_x = 180\times 10^8\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) T
  • (D) \(B_y = 180\times 10^8\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) T

Question 114:

In a photoelectric experiment, the slope of the graph drawn between stopping potential along y-axis and frequency of incident radiation along x-axis is (Planck's constant = \(6.6\times 10^{-34}\) Js)

  • (A) \(2.42\times 10^{15}\) JsC\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(10.56\times 10^{-15}\) JsC\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(4.125\times 10^{-15}\) JsC\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(6.25\times 10^{-20}\) JsC\(^{-1}\)

Question 115:

The maximum wavelength of incident radiation required to ionize a hydrogen atom in its ground state is nearly

  • (A) 912 nm
  • (B) 1215 A
  • (C) 912 A
  • (D) 1215 nm

Question 116:

When an element \(_{90}^{232}Th\) decays into \(_{82}^{208}Pb\), the number of \(\alpha\) and \(\beta^{-}\) particles emitted respectively are

  • (A) 4, 8
  • (B) 8, 2
  • (C) 6, 2
  • (D) 6, 4

Question 117:

During the disintegration of a radioactive nucleus of mass number 208 at rest, two alpha particles each with kinetic energy E are emitted. The total kinetic energy of the emitted alpha particles and the daughter nucleus after the disintegration is

  • (A) \(\frac{51E}{25}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{51E}{50}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{52E}{25}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{26E}{25}\)

Question 118:

The current amplification factor of a transistor in common emitter configuration is 80. If the emitter current is 2.43 mA, then the base current is

  • (A) 15 \(\mu\)A
  • (B) 1.5 \(\mu\)A
  • (C) 3 \(\mu\)A
  • (D) 30 \(\mu\)A

Question 119:

The negative feedback in an amplifier

  • (A) increases noise and distortion
  • (B) reduces noise and distortion
  • (C) reduces noise and increases distortion
  • (D) increases noise and reduces distortion

Question 120:

If the frequencies of the carrier wave and message signal are \(1\) MHz and \(28\) kHz respectively, then the frequencies of the side bands are

  • (A) \(1014\) kHz, \(986\) kHz
  • (B) \(1028\) kHz, \(972\) kHz
  • (C) \(29\) kHz, \(27\) kHz
  • (D) \(514\) kHz, \(486\) kHz

Question 121:

Observe the following statements
Statement-I: Rutherford model of an atom cannot explain the stability of an atom
Statement-II: The wavelength of X-rays is higher than the wavelength of microwaves
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct
  • (B) Both statements I and II are not correct
  • (C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
  • (D) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct

Question 122:

In hydrogen atom, an electron is transferred from an orbit of radius \(1.3225\) nm to another orbit of radius \(0.2116\) nm. What is the energy (in J) of emitted radiation? (Rydberg constant \(R_H \approx 1.097 \times 10^7 m^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(1.635\times 10^{-18}\)
  • (B) \(3.027\times 10^{-19}\)
  • (C) \(4.087\times 10^{-19}\)
  • (D) \(0.4578\times 10^{-18}\)

Question 123:

Identify the correct orders regarding atomic radii
i. \(Cl > F > Li\)
ii. \(P > C > N\)
iii. \(Tm > Sm > Eu\)
iv. \(Sr > Ca > Mg\)

 

  • (A) i, ii, iii only
  • (B) ii, iv only
  • (C) ii, iii, iv only
  • (D) iii, iv only

Question 124:

Match the following

  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-V
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-V
  • (D) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-IV

Question 125:

The atomic numbers of the elements X, Y, Z are \(a, a+1, a+2\) respectively. Z is an alkali metal. The nature of bonding in the compound formed by X and Z is

  • (A) Covalent
  • (B) Metallic
  • (C) Ionic
  • (D) Coordinate covalent

Question 126:

The sets of molecules in which central atom has no lone pair of electrons are:
i. \(SnCl_2, NH_3, SF_4\)
ii. \(HgCl_2, SO_3, SF_6\)
iii. \(BeCl_2, BF_3, PCl_5\)
iv. \(ClF_3, BrF_5, XeF_6\)

 

  • (A) i, iv only
  • (B) ii, iii only
  • (C) ii, iii, iv only
  • (D) i, ii, iii only

Question 127:

The isobars of one mole of an ideal gas were obtained at three different pressures \((p_1, p_2\) and \(p_3)\). The slopes of these isobars are \(m_1, m_2\) and \(m_3\) respectively. If \(p_1 < p_2 < p_3\), then the correct relation of the slopes is

  • (A) \(m_1 > m_2 > m_3\)
  • (B) \(m_1 < m_2 < m_3\)
  • (C) \(m_1 > m_3 > m_2\)
  • (D) \(m_1 = m_2 = m_3\)

Question 128:

\(100 mL\) of \(0.05 M Cu^{2+}\) aqueous solution is added to \(1 L\) of \(0.1 M KI\) solution. The number of moles of \(I_2\) and \(Cu_2I_2\) formed are respectively

  • (A) \(2.5\times 10^{-3}, 5\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (B) \(5\times 10^{-3}, 5\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (C) \(5\times 10^{-3}, 2.5\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(2.5\times 10^{-3}, 2.5\times 10^{-3}\)

Question 129:

The \(C_p\) of an ideal gas is \(10.314 J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\). One mole of this gas is expanded against a constant pressure of \(p atm\). The change in temperature during expansion is \(1.0 K\). The values of \(q\) (in J) and \(\Delta H\) (in \(J mol^{-1}\)) are respectively

  • (A) \(10.314, 10.314\)
  • (B) \(2.000, 10.314\)
  • (C) \(10.314, 2.000\)
  • (D) \(2.000, 2.000\)

Question 130:

At T(K), \(K_p\) value for the reaction, \(2AO_2(g)+O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2AO_3(g)\) is \(4\times 10^{10}\). What is the \(K'_p\) value for \(3AO_2(g)+\frac{3}{2}O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 3AO_3(g)\) at T(K)?

  • (A) \(16\times 10^{20}\)
  • (B) \(8\times 10^{20}\)
  • (C) \(16\times 10^{15}\)
  • (D) \(8\times 10^{15}\)

Question 131:

A sample of water contains \(Mg(HCO_3)_2\) and \(Ca(HCO_3)_2\). On boiling this water, these hydrogen carbonates are removed as precipitates. The precipitates are

  • (A) \(MgCO_3, CaCO_3\)
  • (B) \(Mg(OH)_2, Ca(OH)_2\)
  • (C) \(Mg(OH)_2, CaCO_3\)
  • (D) \(MgCO_3, Ca(OH)_2\)

Question 132:

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  • (A) Carbonates of alkaline earth metals are insoluble in water
  • (B) Beryllium halides are covalent in nature
  • (C) The super oxides of alkali metals are colourless
  • (D) Alkali metal halides have high negative enthalpies of formation

Question 133:

The order of negative standard potential values of \(Li, Na, K\) is

  • (A) \(Li > Na > K\)
  • (B) \(K > Na > Li\)
  • (C) \(Na > K > Li\)
  • (D) \(Li > K > Na\)

Question 134:

In which of the following reactions, hydrogen is evolved?
I. \(Reaction of sodium borohydride with iodine\)
II. \(Oxidation of diborane\)
III. \(Reaction of boron trifluoride with sodium hydride\)
IV. \(Hydrolysis of diborane\)

 

  • (A) I, IV only
  • (B) I, II only
  • (C) III, IV only
  • (D) I, II, IV only

Question 135:

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the gas evolved by the reaction of dilute \(HCl\) on \(CaCO_3\)?

  • (A) It is colourless, odourless gas
  • (B) It has least solubility in water
  • (C) It is acidic in nature
  • (D) It is poisonous gas

Question 136:

Observe the following statements
Statement-I: The carbon containing components of photochemical smog are acrolein, methanal and PAN
Statement-II: The number of greenhouse gases in the list given below is 5
\(CH_4, CO_2, NO, H_2O(l), H_2O(g), O_2, O_3\)
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct
  • (B) Both statements I and II are not correct
  • (C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
  • (D) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct

Question 137:

The condensed, bond line and complete formulae of n-butane are respectively

  • (A) II, I, III
  • (B) I, II, III
  • (C) I, III, II
  • (D) II, III, I

Question 138:

'X' is the isomer of \(C_6H_{14}\). It has four primary carbons and two tertiary carbons. 'X' can be prepared from which of the following reaction?

  • (A) \(Reaction with Ni/\Delta and H_2\) (Hydrogenation)
  • (B) \(Reaction of a halide with Na/dry ether\) (Wurtz Reaction)
  • (C) \(Reaction of a halide with Zn/H^+\) (Reduction)
  • (D) \(Reaction of a halide with Na/dry ether\) (Wurtz Reaction)

Question 139:

What are X and Y respectively in the following reaction sequence?
\[ Iso-pentane \xrightarrow{KMnO_4} X \xrightarrow{\substack{20%\,H_3PO_4
358\,K}} Y \]

  • (A) \(Structure 1, Structure 2\)
  • (B) \(Structure 3, Structure 4\)
  • (C) \(Structure 1, Structure 4\)
  • (D) \(Structure 3, Structure 2\)

Question 140:

What are X and Y respectively in the following reaction sequence?

  • (A) \(CH_3Cl, CH_3COCl\)
  • (B) \(C_2H_5Cl, CH_3COCl\)
  • (C) \(CH_3COCl, CH_3Cl\)
  • (D) \(C_2H_5COCl, CH_3Cl\)

Question 141:

A metal (M), crystallizes in \(fcc\) lattice with edge length of \(4.242 A\). What is the radius of \(M\) atom (in \(A\))?

  • (A) 1.25
  • (B) 1.75
  • (C) 1.5
  • (D) 1.0

Question 142:

A solid mixture weighing \(5 g\) contains equal number of moles of \(Na_2CO_3\) and \(NaHCO_3\). This solid mixture was dissolved in \(1 L\) of water. What is the volume (in \(mL\)) of \(0.1 M HCl\) required to completely react with this \(1 L\) mixture solution?

  • (A) 157.8
  • (B) 789.0
  • (C) 1578.0
  • (D) 946.8

Question 143:

At \(298 K\) the equilibrium constant for the reaction, \(M(s)+2Ag^+(aq) \rightleftharpoons M^{2+}(aq)+2Ag(s)\) is \(10^{15}\). What is the \(E_{cell}^{\circ}\) (in \(V\)) for this reaction? (\(\frac{2.303 RT}{F} = 0.06 V\))

  • (A) 0.45
  • (B) 0.90
  • (C) 0.225
  • (D) 1.10

Question 144:

\(A\to P\) is a first order reaction. At \(300 K\) this reaction was started with \([A]=0.5 molL^{-1}\). The rate constant of reaction was \(0.125 min^{-1}\). The same reaction was started separately with \([A]=1 molL^{-1}\) at \(300 K\). The rate constant (in \(min^{-1}\)) now is

  • (A) 0.25
  • (B) 0.50
  • (C) 0.125
  • (D) 1.00

Question 145:

Observe the following reactions
I. \(CO(g)+H_2(g) \xrightarrow{X} HCHO(g)\)
II. \(CO(g)+3H_2(g) \xrightarrow{Y} CH_4(g)+H_2O(g)\)
The catalysts \(X\) and \(Y\) in the above reactions are respectively

  • (A) \(Cu, Cu\)
  • (B) \(Ni, Ni\)
  • (C) \(Cu, Ni\)
  • (D) \(Ni, Cu\)

Question 146:

Composition of siderite ore is

  • (A) \(FeCO_3\)
  • (B) \(ZnCO_3\)
  • (C) \(CuCO_3 \cdot Cu(OH)_2\)
  • (D) \(CuFeS_2\)

Question 147:

Which of the following gives more number of oxides on reacting with \(HCl\)?

  • (A) \(Na_2CO_3\)
  • (B) \(NaNO_2\)
  • (C) \(Na_2SO_3\)
  • (D) \(NaHCO_3\)

Question 148:

The number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom of \(XeO_3, XeOF_4\) and \(XeF_6\) respectively is

  • (A) 1, 1, 1
  • (B) 3, 2, 1
  • (C) 2, 1, 0
  • (D) 1, 2, 1

Question 149:

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  • (A) \(TeO_2\) is an oxidizing agent
  • (B) \(SeO_3\) is acidic in nature
  • (C) \(SeO_2\) is a gas
  • (D) \(SO_2\) is reducing agent

Question 150:

The pair of ions with paramagnetic nature and same number of electrons is

  • (A) \(Lu^{3+}, Yb^{2+}\)
  • (B) \(Eu^{3+}, Pm^{2+}\)
  • (C) \(Eu^{2+}, Gd^{3+}\)
  • (D) \(La^{3+}, Ce^{4+}\)

Question 151:

Observe the following complex ions Identify the option in which the unpaired electrons in the complex ions are in correct increasing order

  • (A) C, A, B, D
  • (B) B, A, C, D
  • (C) D, A, B, C
  • (D) D, B, A, C

Question 152:

The polymer chains are held together by hydrogen bonding in a polymer X. Polymer X is formed from monomers Y and Z. What are Y and Z?

  • (A) A, C
  • (B) B, E
  • (C) C, D
  • (D) A, A

Question 153:

Amino acid 'X' contains phenolic hydroxy group and amino acid 'Y' contains amide group. 'X' and 'Y' respectively are

  • (A) \(Ser, Arg\)
  • (B) \(Cys, Lys\)
  • (C) \(Thr, Asn\)
  • (D) \(Tyr, Gln\)

Question 154:

The chemical X is used in the prevention of heart attack. The structure of X is



  • (A) \(Structure 1\) (\(Acetylsalicylic acid\))
  • (B) \(Structure 2\) (\(Indole\))
  • (C) \(Structure 3\) (\(p-Amino-benzenesulfonamide\))
  • (D) \(Structure 4\) (\(Ketone\))

Question 155:

Observe the following reactions reaction is

  • (A) \(X > Y > Z\)
  • (B) \(X > Z > Y\)
  • (C) \(Y > X > Z\)
  • (D) \(Y > Z > X\)

Question 156:

Consider the following set of reactions.
\(C_6H_5CN \xrightarrow{B} Y \xrightarrow{A} X (reacts with 2,4-DNP)\)
\(C_6H_5CN \xrightarrow{A} X (dissolves in dil. HCl)\)
What are A and B respectively?

  • (A) \(LiAlH_4, H_2O; H_2/Ni\)
  • (B) \(Na/Hg, C_2H_5OH; DIBAL-H, H_2O\)
  • (C) \(DIBAL-H, H_2O; LiAlH_4, H_2O\)
  • (D) \(Na/Hg, C_2H_5OH; H_2/Ni\)

Question 157:

An alcohol X (\(C_5H_{12}O\)) produces turbidity instantly with conc. \(HCl/ZnCl_2\). Isomer (Y) of \(X\) undergoes dehydration with conc. \(H_2SO_4\) at \(443 K\). \(X\) and \(Y\) respectively are

  • (A) \(Structure 1, Structure 2\)
  • (B) \(Structure 2, Structure 1\)
  • (C) \(Structure 3, Structure 4\)
  • (D) \(Structure 4, Structure 3\)

Question 158:

What are \(X\) and \(Y\) in the following reaction sequence?
\(C_5H_{12}O \xrightarrow{Cu/573 K} C_5H_{10} \xrightarrow{(i) O_3, (ii) Zn+H_2O} X + Y\)

  • (A) Acetone + Acetaldehyde (\(CH_3COCH_3 + CH_3CHO\))
  • (B) \(C_3H_7CH_2CH_2OH\) (Incorrect formula)
  • (C) \(C_4H_9CHO\) (Incorrect formula)
  • (D) \(C_4H_9OH\) (Incorrect formula)

Question 159:

Observe the following set of reactions

{l} \(C_6H_5COCl \xrightarrow{X} C_6H_5CHO\)
\(C_6H_5COCl \xrightarrow{Y} C_6H_5COCH_3\)
\(C_6H_5CHO \xrightarrow{OH^-/293 K} Z (Major product)\)

What are \(X, Y\) and \(Z\) respectively?

  • (A) \(H_2/Pd; (CH_3)_2Cd; C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\) (This is wrong \(C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\) is stilbene)
  • (B) \(LiAlH_4, H_3O^+; CH_3MgBr; C_6H_5-C=CH-C_6H_5\)
  • (C) \(H_2/Pd-BaSO_4; (CH_3)_2Cd; C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\)
  • (D) \(H_2/Pd-BaSO_4; CH_3MgBr; C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\text{H}_2/\text{Pd}-\text{BaSO}_4; \text{CH}_3\text{MgBr}; \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH}=\text{CH}-\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify reagent X (Reduction of acyl chloride to aldehyde).

The reaction is: \[ C_6H_5COCl \xrightarrow{X} C_6H_5CHO \]
This is the partial reduction of an acyl chloride to an aldehyde.

Reagent \(X\) must be \(H_2/Pd-BaSO_4\) (Rosenmund reduction).

Hence, \(\boxed{X = H_2/Pd-BaSO_4}\)


Step 2: Identify reagent Y (Formation of ketone).

The reaction: \[ C_6H_5COCl \xrightarrow{Y} C_6H_5COCH_3 \]
This can be done using a dialkyl cadmium reagent \((CH_3)_2Cd\) or a Grignard reagent \((CH_3MgBr)\).

Though organocadmium is more specific, the question provides \(CH_3MgBr\) as the option, so we take: \[ \boxed{Y = CH_3MgBr} \]

Step 3: Identify product Z.

The reaction is: \[ C_6H_5CHO \xrightarrow{OH^-/293\,K} Z \]
Under basic conditions, Benzaldehyde can undergo condensation reactions. If the product is given as \(C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\) (Stilbene), it indicates an aldol-type or Wittig-type condensation product.

Hence, \(\boxed{Z = C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5}\) \; (Stilbene).

Step 4: Final Answer Summary.
\[ \text{X = H_2/Pd-BaSO_4, \quad Y = CH_3MgBr, \quad Z = C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5 \] Quick Tip: The Rosenmund reduction (\(H_2/Pd-BaSO_4\)) is a name reaction for the partial reduction of acyl chlorides to aldehydes. Organometallic reagents like \(R_2Cd\) are best for ketone synthesis. Aldol condensation of aromatic aldehydes with base (like \(C_6H_5CHO\)) is typically a Cannizzaro reaction, unless a strong nucleophile is added.


Question 160:

Consider the following set of reactions.
\(C_6H_5CN \xrightarrow{B} Y (reacts with 2,4-DNP) \xrightarrow{A} X (dissolves in dil. HCl)\)
What are A and B respectively?

  • (A) \(LiAlH_4, H_2O; H_2/Ni\)
  • (B) \(Na/Hg, C_2H_5OH; DIBAL-H, H_2O\)
  • (C) \(DIBAL-H, H_2O; LiAlH_4, H_2O\)
  • (D) \(Na/Hg, C_2H_5OH; H_2/Ni\)

TS EAMCET 2025 Expected Difficulty Level

Based on the analysis of past shifts and expert opinions, the TS EAMCET 2025 Question Paper for the Engineering exam, May 4th 2025 Shift 2, is expected to be of a moderate difficulty level.

Subject Expected Difficulty Level Key Observations
Mathematics Moderate to Tough It is expected to have Lengthy calculation-based questions with emphasis on vectors, calculus, and coordinate geometry
Physics Moderate It is expected to have Conceptually based numericals with a focus on thermodynamics, optics, and electrodynamics
Chemistry Easy to Moderate It will be mostly NCERT-based, with questions from chemical bonding and organic chemistry
Overall Moderate Balanced paper with a mix of direct and application-based questions

TS EAMCET 2025 Topic-Wise Weightage

The TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering Exam has a total of 160 multiple-choice questions that are allocated in the following pattern: Mathematics (80), Physics (40), and Chemistry (40).

Understanding of topic-wise weightage helps candidates to estimate the topics that can be asked in the TS EAMCET Question Paper.

Mathematics (80 Questions)

Topic Expected Questions Approximate Weightage (%)
Algebra 10–12 12%
Calculus 12–14 15%
Coordinate Geometry 10–12 12%
Trigonometry 8–10 10%
Probability & Statistics 8–10 10%
Vector Algebra 6–8 8%

Physics (40 Questions)

Topic Expected Questions Approximate Weightage (%)
Mechanics 10–12 25%
Thermodynamics 6–8 15%
Electromagnetism 6–8 15%
Optics 4–6 10%
Modern Physics 4–6 10%

Chemistry (40 Questions)

Topic Expected Questions Approximate Weightage (%)
Organic Chemistry 12–14 30%
Inorganic Chemistry 10–12 25%
Physical Chemistry 12–14 30%

The JNTU Hyderabad will conduct the TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering Exam on May 4th, 2025, between 3:00 P.M. and 6:00 P.M.

Candidates appearing in this Shift can expect the TS EAMCET Question Paper to follow the standard format of 160 questions, divided into Mathematics (80), Physics (40), and Chemistry (40).

The Exam will be held in online mode with all questions being multiple choice and of 1 mark each, without any negative marking.

The TS EAMCET 2025 May 4th Shift 2 Question Paper with solution PDF is available here.

TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering May 4 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF

TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering May 4 Shift 2 Question Paper Download PDF Check Solution
TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering May 4 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution PDF


Question 1:

The domain and range of \(f(x) = \frac{1}{\sqrt{|x|-x^2}}\) are A and B respectively. Then \(A \cup B = \) ?

  • (A) \(\mathbb{R} - \{-1,0,1\}\)
  • (B) \((-1, \infty) - \{0,1\}\)
  • (C) \((-1,0) \cup (0,1) \cup [2, \infty)\)
  • (D) \((-1,1) \cup [2, \infty)\)

Question 2:

A function \(f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}\) defined by \(f(x) = \begin{cases} 2x+3, & x \le 4/3
-3x^2+8x, & x > 4/3 \end{cases}\) is

  • (A) One-one function
  • (B) not onto
  • (C) a bijective function
  • (D) constant function

Question 3:

If \(2^{4n+3} + 3^{3n+1}\) is divisible by P for all natural numbers \(n\), then P is

  • (A) an even integer
  • (B) an odd integer, not a prime
  • (C) an odd prime integer
  • (D) an integer less than 9

Question 4:

A is a \(3 \times 3\) matrix satisfying \(A^3 - 5A^2 + 7A + I = 0\). If \(A^5 - 6A^4 + 12A^3 - 6A^2 + 2A + 2I = lA + mI\), then \(l + m =\)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2

Question 5:

If \(A = \begin{pmatrix} 0 & 1 & 2 \\
1 & 2 & 3 \\
3 & x & 1 \end{pmatrix}\), \(A^{-1} = \frac{1}{2} \begin{pmatrix} 1 & -1 & 1 \\
-8 & 6 & 2y \\
5 & -3 & 1 \end{pmatrix}\) then the point \((x,y)\) lies on the curve

  • (A) \(y = 3x^2 - 5x - 1\)
  • (B) \(y = \log_{7/5}(2^x + 2^{-x})\)
  • (C) \(y = \frac{e^x + 1}{e^x - 1}\)
  • (D) \(3x^2y - 5xy + 12 = 0\)

Question 6:

Consider a homogeneous system of three linear equations in three unknowns represented by \(AX=O\). If \(X = \begin{pmatrix} l \\
m
0 \end{pmatrix}, l \neq 0, m \neq 0, l, m \in \mathbb{R}\) represents an infinite number of solutions of this system, then rank of A is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 1
  • (D) does not exist

Question 7:

The number of real values of 'a', for which the system of equations \(2x+3y+az = 0\), \(x+ay-2z=0\) and \(3x+y+3z = 0\) has nontrivial solutions is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 0
  • (D) Infinity

Question 8:

If the eight vertices of a regular octagon are given by the complex numbers \(\frac{1}{x_j-2i}\) (\(j=1,2,3,4,5,6,7,8\)), then the radius of the circumcircle of the octagon is

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) i/4
  • (C) i
  • (D) 2

Question 9:

If \(|Z_1 - 3 - 4i| = 5\) and \(|Z_2| = 15\) then the sum of the maximum and minimum values of \(|Z_1 - Z_2|\) is

  • (A) 75
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 35
  • (D) 20

Question 10:

If \(Z=r(\cos\theta+i\sin\theta)\), \((\theta \neq -\pi/2)\) is a solution of \(x^3 = i\), then \(r^9(\cos(9\theta)+i\sin(9\theta)) =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} + \frac{1}{2}i\)
  • (B) 1
  • (C) \(-i\)
  • (D) \(-\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} + \frac{1}{2}i\)

Question 11:

If \(\omega \neq 1\) is a cube root of unity, then one root among the \(7^{th}\) roots of \((1+\omega)\) is

  • (A) \(1+\omega\)
  • (B) \(1-\omega\)
  • (C) \(\omega-\omega^2\)
  • (D) \(\omega - \omega^2\)

Question 12:

If \(f(x) = x^2 - 2(4K-1)x + g(K) > 0\) \(\forall x \in \mathbb{R}\) and for \(K \in (a,b)\), and if \(g(K) = 15K^2 - 2K - 7\), then

  • (A) g(K) attains its maximum at the midpoint of (a,b)
  • (B) g(K) attains its minimum at two points in (a,b)
  • (C) g(K) attains its both maximum and minimum in (a,b)
  • (D) g(K) attains no maximum and no minimum in (a,b)

Question 13:

If local maximum of \(f(x) = \frac{ax+b}{(x-1)(x-4)}\) exists at \((2,-1)\), then \(a+b=\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 2

Question 14:

If \(1+2i\) is a root of the equation \(x^4 - 3x^3 + 8x^2 - 7x + 5 = 0\), then sum of the squares of the other roots is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 2+i
  • (C) -4-4i
  • (D) 8/3

Question 15:

If \(\alpha, \beta, \gamma\) are the roots of the equation \(x^3 + \frac{a}{2}x + b = 0\) and \((\alpha-\beta)(\alpha-\gamma)\), \((\beta-\alpha)(\beta-\gamma)\), \((\gamma-\alpha)(\gamma-\beta)\) are the roots of the equation \((y+a)^3 + K(y+a)^2 + L = 0\), then \(\frac{L}{K}= \)

  • (A) \(\frac{32b^2}{a}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{16a^2}{b}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{18b^2}{a}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{12a^2}{b}\)

Question 16:

All the letters of the word MOTHER are arranged in all possible ways and the resulting words (may or may not have meaning) are arranged as in the dictionary. The number of words that appear after the word MOTHER is

  • (A) 309
  • (B) 310
  • (C) 410
  • (D) 411

Question 17:

The number of positive integral solutions of \(\frac{1}{x} + \frac{1}{y} = \frac{1}{2025}\) is

  • (A) 105
  • (B) 45
  • (C) 135
  • (D) 25

Question 18:

The number of positive integral solutions of \(xyz = 60\) is

  • (A) \(^{59}C_2\)
  • (B) \(^4C_2 \times ^3C_2 \times ^3C_2\)
  • (C) \(^4C_3\)
  • (D) \(^3C_1 \times ^4C_0 \times ^4C_4\)

Question 19:

Numerically greatest term in the expansion of \((3x-4y)^{23}\) when \(x=\frac{1}{6}\) and \(y=\frac{1}{8}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{^{23}C_{11}}{6^{23}}\)
  • (B) \(^{23}C_{11} (\frac{8}{6})^{23}\)
  • (C) \(^{23}C_{11} (\frac{6}{8})^{23}\)
  • (D) \(^{23}C_{11}\)

Question 20:

Let K be the number of rational terms in the expansion of \((\sqrt{2}+\sqrt[6]{3})^{6144}\). If the coefficient of \(x^P (P \in N)\) in the expansion of \(\frac{1}{(1+x)(1+x^2)(1+x^4)(1+x^8)(1+x^{16})}\) is \(a_P\), then \(a_K - a_{K+1} - a_{K-1} =\)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) -2
  • (D) 2

Question 21:

If \(\frac{3x+1}{(x-1)^2(x^2+1)} = \frac{A}{x-1} + \frac{B}{(x-1)^2} + \frac{Cx+D}{x^2+1}\), then \(2(A-C+B+D)=\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 2
  • (D) -1

Question 22:

If \(\tan(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\alpha}{2}) = \tan^3(\frac{\pi}{4}+\frac{\beta}{2})\), then \(\frac{3+\sin^2\beta}{1+3\sin^2\beta}=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\cos\beta}{\cos\alpha}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\cos^3\alpha}{\sin^3\beta}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sin\alpha}{\sin\beta}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\cos\alpha}{\cos\beta}\)

Question 23:

If \(P = \sin\frac{2\pi}{7} + \sin\frac{4\pi}{7} + \sin\frac{8\pi}{7}\) and \(Q = \cos\frac{2\pi}{7} + \cos\frac{4\pi}{7} + \cos\frac{8\pi}{7}\), then the point (P,Q) lies on the circle of radius

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 0
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) 4

Question 24:

If \(\cos\alpha = \frac{l\cos\beta+m}{l+m\cos\beta}\), then \(\frac{\tan^2(\alpha/2)}{\tan^2(\beta/2)} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{l-m}{l+m}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{l+m}{l-m}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{l^2-m^2}{l^2+m^2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{l-m}{l+m}\) (Duplicate option)

Question 25:

If a, b are real numbers and \(\alpha\) is a real root of \(x^2+12+3\sin(a+bx)+6x=0\) then the value of \(\cos(a+b\alpha)\) for the least positive value of \(a+b\alpha\) is

  • (A) -1
  • (B) \(1/\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(1/2\)
  • (D) 0

Question 26:

The number of real solutions of \(\tan^{-1}x + \tan^{-1}(2x) = \frac{\pi}{4}\) is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 0
  • (D) infinitely many

Question 27:

Consider the following statements
Statement-I: \(\cosh^{-1}x = \tanh^{-1}x\) has no solution
Statement-II: \(\cosh^{-1}x = \coth^{-1}x\) has only one solution
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both statements I and II are true
  • (B) Both statements I and II are false
  • (C) Statement I is true, but statement II is false
  • (D) Statement I is false, but statement II is true

Question 28:

If the angular bisector of the angle A of the triangle ABC meets its circumcircle at E and the opposite side BC at D, then \(DE\cos\frac{A}{2} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{a^2}{2(b+c)}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{b^2}{c+a}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{a}{b+c}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{2a}{a+b+c}\)

Question 29:

In a triangle ABC, \(a=5, b=4\) and \(\tan\frac{C}{2} = \sqrt{\frac{7}{9}}\), then its inradius r =

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{2}\)
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{7}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{9}{\sqrt{7}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{7}}\)

Question 30:

Two adjacent sides of a triangle are represented by the vectors \(2\vec{i}+\vec{j}-2\vec{k}\) and \(2\sqrt{3}\vec{i}-2\sqrt{3}\vec{j}+\sqrt{3}\vec{k}\). Then the least angle of the triangle and perimeter of the triangle are respectively

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{3}; 3(3+\sqrt{3})\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{12}; 6+3\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\pi}{2}; 12\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{6}; 9+3\sqrt{3}\)

Question 31:

A plane \(\pi_1\) contains the vectors \(\vec{i}+\vec{j}\) and \(\vec{i}+2\vec{j}\). Another plane \(\pi_2\) contains the vectors \(2\vec{i}-\vec{j}\) and \(3\vec{i}+2\vec{k}\). \(\vec{a}\) is a vector parallel to the line of intersection of \(\pi_1\) and \(\pi_2\). If the angle \(\theta\) between \(\vec{a}\) and \(\vec{i}-2\vec{j}+2\vec{k}\) is acute, then \(\theta=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{4}{3\sqrt{5}})\)
  • (D) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{2}{\sqrt{5}})\)

Question 32:

In a quadrilateral ABCD, \(\angle A = \frac{2\pi}{3}\) and AC is the bisector of angle A. If \(15|AC| = 5|AD| = 3|AB|\), then the angle between \(\vec{AB}\) and \(\vec{BC}\) is

  • (A) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{\sqrt{7}})\)
  • (B) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{2\sqrt{7}})\)
  • (C) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{4\sqrt{3}}{5\sqrt{7}})\)
  • (D) \(\cos^{-1}(\frac{3\sqrt{3}}{4\sqrt{7}})\)

Question 33:

\(\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}\) are three non-coplanar and mutually perpendicular vectors of same magnitude K. \(\vec{r}\) is any vector satisfying \(\vec{a}\times((\vec{r}-\vec{b})\times\vec{a}) + \vec{b}\times((\vec{r}-\vec{c})\times\vec{b}) + \vec{c}\times((\vec{r}-\vec{a})\times\vec{c}) = \vec{0}\), then \(\vec{r} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{K^2(\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c})}{3K^2-1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c}}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{K(\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c})}{K+1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\vec{a}+\vec{b}+\vec{c}}{K^2+1}\)

Question 34:

Consider the following
Assertion (A): The two lines \(\vec{r} = \vec{a}+t(\vec{b})\) and \(\vec{r}=\vec{b}+s(\vec{a})\) intersect each other.
Reason (R): The shortest distance between the lines \(\vec{r}=\vec{p}+t(\vec{q})\) and \(\vec{r}=\vec{c}+s(\vec{d})\) is equal to the length of projection of the vector \((\vec{p}-\vec{c})\) on \((\vec{q}\times\vec{d})\).
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 35:

The mean deviation about median of the numbers \(3x, 6x, 9x, ..., 81x\) is 91, then \(|x|=\)

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 5/2
  • (C) 9/2
  • (D) 8

Question 36:

Functions are formed from the set \(A = \{a_1, a_2, a_3\}\) to another set \(B = \{b_1, b_2, b_3, b_4, b_5\}\). If a function is selected at random, the probability that it is a one-one function is

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 13/25
  • (C) 3/5
  • (D) 12/25

Question 37:

A and B are two events of a random experiment such that \(P(B)=0.4\), \(P(A \cap \bar{B}) = 0.5\), \(P(A \cup B) + P(A|B) = 1.15\), then \(P(A)=\)

  • (A) 0.9
  • (B) 0.8
  • (C) 0.7
  • (D) 0.25

Question 38:

There are two boxes each containing 10 balls. In each box, few of them are black balls and rest are white. A ball is drawn at random from one of the boxes and found that it is black. If the probability that the black ball drawn is from the second box is \(\frac{1}{5}\), then number of black balls in the first box is

  • (A) 5 or 10
  • (B) 2 or 7
  • (C) 4 or 8
  • (D) 3 or 6 or 9

Question 39:

In a shelf there are three mathematics and two physics books. A student takes a book randomly. If he randomly takes, successively for three times by replacing the book already taken every time, then the mean of the number of mathematics books which is treated as random variable is

  • (A) 3/2
  • (B) 129/125
  • (C) 9/5
  • (D) 174/125

Question 40:

In a Poisson distribution, if \(\frac{P(X=5)}{P(X=2)} = \frac{1}{7500}\) and \(\frac{P(X=5)}{P(X=3)} = \frac{1}{500}\), then the mean of the distribution is

  • (A) 15
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 3

Question 41:

A(2,0), B(0,2), C(-2,0) are three points. Let a, b, c be the perpendicular distances from a variable point P on to the lines AB, BC and CA respectively. If a, b, c are in arithmetic progression, then the locus of P is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2}|y| = 2|x-y+2| - |x+y-2|\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{2}|y| = |x-y+2| - |x+y-2|\)
  • (C) \(2|x-y+2| = \frac{|x+y-2|}{\sqrt{2}} + \frac{|x-y-2|}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (D) \(2|x-y+2| = |x+(\sqrt{2}+1)y+2|\)

Question 42:

When the coordinate axes are rotated about the origin through an angle \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) in the positive direction, the equation \(ax^2+2hxy+by^2=c\) is transformed to \(25x'^2+9y'^2=225\), then \((a+2h+b-\sqrt{c})^2=\)

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 1225
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 225

Question 43:

\(y-x=0\) is the equation of a side of a triangle ABC. The orthocentre and circumcentre of the triangle ABC are respectively (5,8) and (2,3). The reflection of orthocentre with respect to any side of the triangle lies on its circumcircle. Then the radius of the circumcircle of the triangle is

  • (A) 5
  • (B) \(2\sqrt{5}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{10}\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{10}\)

Question 44:

Two families of lines are given by \(ax+by+c=0\) and \(4a^2+9b^2-c^2-12ab=0\). Then the line common to both the families is

  • (A) a line passing through (-1,2) and (2,3)
  • (B) a line passing through (3,2) and (2,3)
  • (C) a line passing through (-3,-2) and (-2,-3)
  • (D) a line passing through (2,-3) and (-2,3)

Question 45:

Two non parallel sides of a rhombus are parallel to the lines \(x+y-1=0\) and \(7x-y-5=0\). If (1,3) is the centre of the rhombus and one of its vertices \(A(\alpha, \beta)\) lies on \(15x-5y=6\), then one of the possible values of \((\alpha+\beta)\) is

  • (A) 18/5
  • (B) 12/5
  • (C) 37/5
  • (D) 39/5

Question 46:

If the equations \(3x^2+2hxy-3y^2=0\) and \(3x^2+2hxy-3y^2+2x-4y+c=0\) represent the four sides of a square, then \(\frac{h}{c}= \)

  • (A) 1/4
  • (B) -2/3
  • (C) -3
  • (D) -4

Question 47:

The radius of the circle having three chords along y-axis, the line \(y=x\) and the line \(2x+3y=10\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{10}{\sqrt{13}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\sqrt{26}}{3}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{5}{\sqrt{13}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{10}{3}\)

Question 48:

Among the chords of the circle \(x^2+y^2=75\), the number of chords having their midpoints on the line \(x=8\) and having their slopes as integers is

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2

Question 49:

The equation of the circle which touches the circle \(S \equiv x^2+y^2-10x-4y+19=0\) at the point (2,3) internally and having radius equal to half of the radius of the circle S=0 is

  • (A) \(x^2+y^2+7x+5y+64=0\)
  • (B) \(x^2+y^2-7x-5y+16=0\)
  • (C) \(x^2+y^2-14x-10y+16=0\)
  • (D) \(x^2+y^2-5x-7y+16=0\)

Question 50:

If \(P(\frac{7}{5}, \frac{6}{5})\) is the inverse point of \(A(1,2)\) with respect to a circle with centre \(C(2,0)\), then the radius of that circle is

  • (A) 9
  • (B) 3
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) 1

Question 51:

If the circle \(S=0\) intersect the three circles \(S_1 = x^2+y^2+4x-7=0\), \(S_2 = x^2+y^2+y=0\) and \(S_3 = x^2+y^2+\frac{3}{2}x+\frac{5}{2}y-\frac{9}{2}=0\) orthogonally, then the radical axis of \(S=0\) and \(S_1=0\) is

  • (A) \(4x-y-7=0\)
  • (B) \(x+y-3=0\)
  • (C) \(4x+y-3=0\)
  • (D) \(x-y-2=0\)

Question 52:

If a tangent to the circle \(x^2+y^2+2x+2y+1=0\) is radical axis of the circles \(x^2+y^2+2gx+2fy+c=0\) and \(2x^2+2y^2+3x+8y+2c=0\), then

  • (A) \(g=\frac{3}{7}\) or \(f=4\)
  • (B) \(g=\frac{3}{2}\) or \(f=\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(g=\frac{3}{5}\) or \(f=1\)
  • (D) \(g=\frac{3}{4}\) or \(f=2\)

Question 53:

If the angle between the tangents drawn to the parabola \(y^2=4x\) from the points on the line \(4x-y=0\) is \(\frac{\pi}{3}\), then the sum of the abscissae of all such points is

  • (A) 5/3
  • (B) 4/7
  • (C) 2/5
  • (D) 10/13

Question 54:

The normal at a point on the parabola \(y^2=4x\) passes through a point P. Two more normals to this parabola also pass through P. If the centroid of the triangle formed by the feet of these three normals is G(2,0), then the abscissa of P is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) -4
  • (C) 5
  • (D) -5

Question 55:

The circumcenter of the equilateral triangle having the three points \(\theta_1, \theta_2, \theta_3\) lying on the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1\) as its vertices is \((r,s)\). Then the average of \(\cos(\theta_1-\theta_2), \cos(\theta_2-\theta_3)\) and \(\cos(\theta_3-\theta_1)\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}[\frac{3r^2}{a^2}+\frac{3s^2}{b^2}-1]\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}[\frac{r^2}{a^2}+\frac{s^2}{b^2}]\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{3}[\frac{r^2}{a^2}+\frac{s^2}{b^2}]\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{3}[\frac{r^2}{a^2}+\frac{s^2}{b^2}+\frac{rs}{ab}]\)

Question 56:

The ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=1\) (\(b>a\)) is an ellipse with eccentricity \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\). If the angle of intersection between the ellipse and parabola \(y^2=4ax\) is \(\theta\), then the coordinates of the point \(\frac{20}{3}\) on the ellipse is

  • (A) \((\frac{a}{2}, \frac{a}{2})\)
  • (B) \((\frac{a}{2}, \frac{3a}{2})\)
  • (C) \((\frac{\sqrt{5}a}{2}, \frac{3\sqrt{5}a}{2\sqrt{2}})\)
  • (D) \((\frac{a}{\sqrt{2}}, \frac{\sqrt{3}a}{\sqrt{2}})\)

Question 57:

The number of common tangents that can be drawn to the curves \(\frac{x^2}{16}-\frac{y^2}{9}=1\) and \(x^2+y^2=16\) is

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 58:

Let A(\(\alpha\),4,7) and B(3,\(\beta\),8) be two points in space. If YZ plane and ZX plane respectively divide the line segment joining the points A and B in the ratio 2:3 and 4:5, then the point C which divides AB in the ratio \(\alpha:\beta\) externally is

  • (A) \((\frac{16}{3}, 10, 3)\)
  • (B) \((-\frac{16}{3}, \frac{28}{3}, \frac{19}{3})\)
  • (C) \((-\frac{16}{3}, -\frac{28}{3}, -\frac{19}{3})\)
  • (D) \((-\frac{16}{3}, 10, \frac{19}{3})\)

Question 59:

The direction ratios of the line bisecting the angle between the x-axis and the line having direction ratios (3, -1, 5) are

  • (A) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{7}}, \frac{1}{\sqrt{7}}, \frac{5}{\sqrt{7}}\)
  • (B) \(3+\sqrt{35}, -1, 5\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{35}-3, 1, -\sqrt{5}\) (The image is garbled, assuming it should be \(\sqrt{35}-3, 1, -5\))
  • (D) \(\sqrt{35}-3, 1, 5\)

Question 60:

If the plane \(-4x-2y+2z+\alpha=0\) is at a distance of two units from the plane \(2x+y-z+1=0\), then the product of all the possible values of \(\alpha\) is

  • (A) -23
  • (B) 42
  • (C) -92
  • (D) 72

Question 61:

\(\lim_{x \to 0} \frac{\sqrt[3]{\cos x} - \sqrt{\cos x}}{\sin^2 x} =\)

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 1/12
  • (C) 1/6
  • (D) 2/3

Question 62:

Let \(f:[-1,2] \to \mathbb{R}\) be defined by \(f(x) = [x^2-3]\) where \([.]\) denotes greatest integer function, then the number of points of discontinuity for the function \(f\) in \((-1,2)\) is

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 4
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 2

Question 63:

If \(f(x) = \begin{cases} x^2 \cos(\frac{\pi}{x}), & x \neq 0
0, & x=0 \end{cases}\), then at \(x=0\), \(f(x)\) is

(Note: The question image says 'at \(x=2\)', but this is a standard problem about the point \(x=0\). At \(x=2\), the function is clearly differentiable by standard rules. We assume the question meant \(x=0\).)

  • (A) Differentiable
  • (B) Continuous but not differentiable
  • (C) Right differentiable only
  • (D) Left differentiable only

Question 64:

The set of all values of x for which \(f(x) = ||x|-1|\) is differentiable is

  • (A) \(\{-1,1\}\)
  • (B) \(\mathbb{R} - \{-1,1,0\}\)
  • (C) \(\mathbb{R}\)
  • (D) \((0, \infty)\)

Question 65:

If \(y=f(x)^{g(x)}\) and \(\frac{dy}{dx} = y[H(x)f'(x)+G(x)g'(x)]\), then \(\int \frac{G(x)H(x)f'(x)}{g(x)}dx =\)

  • (A) \(\log(\log f(x)) + c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{[\log f(x)]^2}{2} + c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\log f(x)}{2} + c\)
  • (D) \(x^2+c\)

Question 66:

If \(x=t-\sin t, y=1-\cos t\) and \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2}=-1\) at \(t=K, K>0\), then \(\lim_{t \to K} \frac{y}{x} =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{\pi}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{\pi-2}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{\pi-2}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\pi}{2}\)

Question 67:

For the curve \((\frac{x}{a})^n + (\frac{y}{b})^n = 2\), (\(n \in N\) \& \(n>1\)) the line \(\frac{x}{a}+\frac{y}{b}=2\) is

  • (A) a normal for all values of n
  • (B) a normal for only values of n more than Max\{a,b\}
  • (C) a tangent for all values of n
  • (D) a tangent for only values of n more than Min\{a,b\}

Question 68:

The height of a cone with semi vertical angle \(\pi/3\) is increasing at the rate of 2 units/min. The rate at which the radius of the cone is to be decreased so as to have a fixed volume always is

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{3}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) \(\sqrt{2}\)

Question 69:

The function \(f(x)=2x^3-9ax^2+12a^2x+1\) where \(a>0\) attains its local maximum and local minimum at p and q respectively. If \(p^2=q\) then a =

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 1/2

Question 70:

Consider all functions given in List-I in the interval [1,3]. The List-2 has the values of 'c' obtained by applying Lagrange's mean value theorem on the functions of List-1. Match the functions and values of 'c'.

  • (A) A-II, B-V, C-IV, D-III
  • (B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (C) A-IV, B-V, C-II, D-I
  • (D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-V

Question 71:

If the percentage error in the radius of a circle is 3, then the percentage error in its area is

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 3/2
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 4

Question 72:

If \(I_1 = \int \frac{e^x}{e^{4x}+e^{2x}+1}dx\), \(I_2 = \int \frac{e^{-x}}{e^{-4x}+e^{-2x}+1}dx\), then \(I_2-I_1=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{1}{2}\log\left(\frac{e^{2x}-e^{-2x}+1}{e^{2x}+e^{-2x}-1}\right)+c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{1}{2}\log\left(\frac{e^{2x}-e^{-2x}-1}{e^{2x}+e^{-2x}+1}\right)+c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\log\left(\frac{e^{2x}+e^{-x}+1}{e^{2x}+e^{-x}-1}\right)+c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{2}\log\left(\frac{e^x+e^{-x}-1}{e^x+e^{-x}+1}\right)+c\)

Question 73:

If \(\int \frac{\sqrt{1-\sqrt{x}}}{\sqrt{x(1+\sqrt{x})}}dx = 2f(x)-2\sin^{-1}\sqrt{x}+c\), then \(f(x)=\)

  • (A) \(Sech^{-1}\sqrt{x}\)
  • (B) \(Cosec^{-1}\sqrt{x}\)
  • (C) \(\log\left(\frac{1+x}{x}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\log\left(\frac{\sqrt{1+x}-1}{\sqrt{x}}\right)\)

Question 74:

If \(\int \frac{3x+2}{4x^2+4x+5}dx = A\log(4x^2+4x+5)+B\tan^{-1}(\frac{2x+1}{2})+c\), then \(A+B=\)

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 3/4
  • (C) 3/8
  • (D) 1/8

Question 75:

Consider the following
Assertion (A): \(\int \sqrt{x-3}(\sin^{-1}(\log x) + \cos^{-1}(\log x))dx = \frac{\pi}{3}(x-3)^{3/2}+c\)
Reason (R): \(\sin^{-1}(f(x))+\cos^{-1}(f(x))=\frac{\pi}{2}\), \(|f(x)|\le 1\)
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 76:

\(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{(2n(2n-1)...(n+2)(n+1))^{1/n}}{n} =\)

  • (A) \(\int_0^1 \log x dx\)
  • (B) \(\int_0^1 x \log x dx\)
  • (C) \(\int_0^1 (x+1)\log(x+1) dx\)
  • (D) \(\int_0^1 \log(1+x) dx\)

Question 77:

The area of the region bounded by \(y=x^3\), x-axis, \(x=-2\) and \(x=4\) is

  • (A) 64
  • (B) 81/4
  • (C) 66/5
  • (D) 68

Question 78:

If \(\int_0^{\pi/2} \tan^{14}(x/2)dx = 2\left[\sum_{n=1}^7 f(n) - \frac{\pi}{4}\right]\), then \(f(n)=\)

  • (A) \(\frac{(-1)^n}{n-1}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{(-1)^n}{2n+1}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{2n-1}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n+1}\)

Question 79:

The differential equation of the family of all circles of radius 'a' is

  • (A) \(y_1y_2 + (1+y_1^2)=a\)
  • (B) \((1+y_1^2)^3 = a^2y_2^2\)
  • (C) \(1+y_1^2 = y_2^2+a^2\)
  • (D) \(y_2^2+1 = y_1^2+a^2\)

Question 80:

If the general solution of \((1+y^2)dx = (\tan^{-1}y - x)dy\) is \(x = f(y)+ce^{-\tan^{-1}y}\), then \(f(y)=\)

  • (A) \(\tan^{-1}y\)
  • (B) \(\tan^{-1}y+1\)
  • (C) \(\tan^{-1}y-1\)
  • (D) \(y\tan^{-1}y\)

Question 81:

The force of mutual attraction between any two objects by virtue of their masses is

  • (A) Gravitational force
  • (B) Electromagnetic force
  • (C) Strong nuclear force
  • (D) Weak nuclear force

Question 82:

The error in the measurement of force acting normally on a square plate is 3%. If the error in the measurement of the side of the plate is 1%, then the error in the determination of the pressure acting on the plate is

  • (A) 4%
  • (B) 3%
  • (C) 5%
  • (D) 6%

Question 83:

For a particle moving along a straight line path, the displacements in third and fifth seconds of its motion are 10 m and 18 m respectively. The speed of the particle at time t=4s is

  • (A) 32 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 8 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 12 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 16 ms\(^{-1}\)

Question 84:

The vertical displacement (y in metre) of a projectile in terms of its horizontal displacement (x in metre) is given by \(y=(\sqrt{3}x - 0.2x^2)\). The time of flight of the projectile is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^{-2}\))

  • (A) \(5\sqrt{3}\)s
  • (B) \(\sqrt{3}\)s
  • (C) 0.2s
  • (D) \(0.2\sqrt{3}\)s

Question 85:

A block of mass \(\sqrt{2}\) kg is placed on a rough horizontal surface. A force 'F' acting upwards at an angle of 45\(^\circ\) with the horizontal causes the block to start motion. If the coefficient of static friction between the surface and the block is 0.25, the magnitude of the force 'F' is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^{-2}\))

  • (A) 0.5 N
  • (B) 2 N
  • (C) 4 N
  • (D) 8 N

Question 86:

If the kinetic energy of a body moving with a velocity of \((2\vec{i}+3\vec{j}-4\vec{k})\) ms\(^{-1}\) is 87 J, then the mass of the body is

  • (A) 3 kg
  • (B) 12 kg
  • (C) 9 kg
  • (D) 6 kg

Question 87:

A body of mass 0.5 kg is supplied with a power 'P' (in watt) which varies with time 't' (in second) as \(P=3t^2+3\). If the velocity of the body at time t=0 is zero, then the velocity of the body at time t=3s is

  • (A) 12 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 24 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 18 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 36 ms\(^{-1}\)

Question 88:

A solid sphere of mass 2 kg and radius 0.5 m is rolling without slipping on a horizontal surface. The ratio of the rotational and translational kinetic energies of the sphere is

  • (A) 3:5
  • (B) 2:5
  • (C) 4:5
  • (D) 7:5

Question 89:

If the length of a thin uniform rod is 'L' and the radius of gyration of the rod about an axis perpendicular to its length and passing through one end is K, then K:L=

  • (A) 1:\(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) 1:\(\sqrt{2}\)
  • (C) 1:3
  • (D) 1:2

Question 90:

The force (F in newton) acting on a particle of mass 90 g executing simple harmonic motion is given by \(F+0.04\pi^2y=0\), where y is displacement of the particle in meter. If the amplitude of the particle is \(\frac{6}{\pi}\) m, then the maximum velocity of the particle is

  • (A) 6 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 2 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 8 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 4 ms\(^{-1}\)

Question 91:

Which of the following is incorrect about the gravitational force between two bodies?

  • (A) Conservative force
  • (B) Attractive force
  • (C) Not a central force
  • (D) Not a contact force

Question 92:

A steel rod with a circular cross-section of diameter 1cm and another steel rod with a square cross-section of side 1cm have equal mass. If the two rods are subjected to same tension, the ratio of the elongations of the two rods is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2/\(\pi\)
  • (C) 4/\(\pi^2\)
  • (D) 16/\(\pi^2\)

Question 93:

A cube of side 40 cm is floating with \(\frac{1}{4}\)th of its volume immersed in water. When a circular disc is placed on the cube, it floats with \(\frac{2}{5}\)th of its volume immersed in water. The mass of the disc is

  • (A) 6.4 kg
  • (B) 9.6 kg
  • (C) 3.2 kg
  • (D) 1.6 kg

Question 94:

The maximum length of water column that can stay without falling in a vertically held capillary tube of diameter 1mm and open at both the ends is (Acceleration due to gravity = 10 ms\(^{-2}\) and surface tension of water = 0.07 Nm\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) 2.8 cm
  • (B) 5.6 cm
  • (C) 1.4 cm
  • (D) 0 cm

Question 95:

A steel pendulum clock manufactured at 32\(^\circ\)C and working at 47\(^\circ\)C is nearly (Coefficient of linear expansion of steel = \(12 \times 10^{-6}\) /\(^\circ\)C)

  • (A) 7.8 s slow per day
  • (B) 7.8 s fast per day
  • (C) 15.6 s slow per day
  • (D) 15.6 s fast per day

Question 96:

A metal metre scale that is accurate up to 0.5 mm is made at a temperature of 25\(^\circ\)C. The range of temperatures within which it can be used is (Coefficient of linear expansion of the metal = \(10^{-5}\) /\(^\circ\)C)

  • (A) +25\(^\circ\)C to +75\(^\circ\)C
  • (B) +25\(^\circ\)C to +50\(^\circ\)C
  • (C) -25\(^\circ\)C to +75\(^\circ\)C
  • (D) 0\(^\circ\)C to +50\(^\circ\)C

Question 97:

A Carnot engine uses diatomic gas as a working substance. During the adiabatic expansion part of the cycle, if the volume of the gas becomes 32 times its initial volume, then the efficiency of the engine is

  • (A) 100%
  • (B) 75%
  • (C) 50%
  • (D) 25%

Question 98:

The ratio of the average translational kinetic energies of hydrogen and oxygen at the same temperature is

  • (A) 1:8
  • (B) 1:4
  • (C) 1:1
  • (D) 1:6

Question 99:

The air columns in two tubes closed at one end vibrating in their fundamental modes produce 2 beats per second. The number of beats produced per second when the same tubes are vibrated in their fundamental mode with their both ends open are

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 100:

A car moving towards a cliff emits sound of frequency 'n'. If the difference in frequencies of the horn and its echo heard by the driver of the car is 10% of 'n', then the speed of the car is nearly (Speed of sound in air is 336ms\(^{-1}\))

  • (A) 16 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 18 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 30 ms\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 33 ms\(^{-1}\)

Question 101:

A straight metal rod of length 6 cm is placed along the principal axis of a concave mirror of focal length 9 cm such that the end of the rod closer to the mirror is at a distance of 15 cm from the pole of the mirror. The length of the image of the rod is

  • (A) 6 cm
  • (B) 12 cm
  • (C) 8.75 cm
  • (D) 6.75 cm

Question 102:

A ray of light incidents at an angle of \(9.3^\circ\) on one face of a small angle prism of refracting angle \(6^\circ\). If the ray of light emerges normally from the second face, the refractive index of the material of the prism is

  • (A) 1.40
  • (B) 1.45
  • (C) 1.55
  • (D) 1.50

Question 103:

The distance for which ray optics becomes a good approximation for an aperture of 0.3 cm and a light of wavelength 6000 \(\AA\) is

  • (A) 12 m
  • (B) 15 m
  • (C) 24 m
  • (D) 30 m

Question 104:

The electrostatic force between two charges kept in air is F. If 30% of the space between the charges is filled with a medium, then the electrostatic force between the charges becomes \(\frac{F}{2.56}\). The dielectric constant of the medium is

  • (A) 8
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 4

Question 105:

729 small identical spheres each charged to an electric potential 3V combine to form a bigger sphere. The electric potential of the bigger sphere is

  • (A) 9 V
  • (B) 729 V
  • (C) 81 V
  • (D) 243 V

Question 106:

The current amplification factor of a transistor in common emitter configuration is 80. If the emitter current is 2.43 mA, then the base current is

  • (A) 15 \(\mu\)A
  • (B) 1.5 \(\mu\)A
  • (C) 3 \(\mu\)A
  • (D) 30 \(\mu\)A

Question 107:

The area of cross-section of a potentiometer wire is \(6 \times 10^{-7}\) m\(^2\). The potential difference per unit length of the potentiometer wire when it is connected to a cell of negligible internal resistance and a resistor in series is \(0.15\) Vm\(^{-1}\). If the current through potentiometer wire is \(0.3\)A, then the resistivity of the material of the potentiometer wire is

  • (A) \(4 \times 10^{-6} \Omega\)m
  • (B) \(3 \times 10^{-7} \Omega\)m
  • (C) \(3 \times 10^{-6} \Omega\)m
  • (D) \(4 \times 10^{-7} \Omega\)m

Question 108:

As shown in the figure, a uniform straight wire of length \(30\sqrt{3}\) cm is bent in the form of an equilateral triangle ABC. A uniform magnetic field 2T is applied parallel to the side BC. If the current through the wire is 2A, the magnitude of the force on the side AC is

  • (A) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}}\) N
  • (B) \(0.2\sqrt{3}\) N
  • (C) \(1.2\) N
  • (D) \(0.6\) N

Question 109:

A proton moving with a velocity of \(8\times 10^5\) ms\(^{-1}\) enters a uniform magnetic field normal to the direction of the magnetic field. If the radius of the circular path of the proton in the magnetic field is \(8.3\) cm, then the magnitude of the magnetic field is (Charge of proton = \(1.6\times 10^{-19}\) C and mass of the proton = \(1.66\times 10^{-27}\) kg)

  • (A) 500 mT
  • (B) 100 mT
  • (C) 200 mT
  • (D) 400 mT

Question 110:

At a certain place in the magnetic meridian, the earth's magnetic field is twice its vertical component. The ratio of horizontal component of earth's magnetic field and the total magnetic field of the earth at that place is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{3}:2\)
  • (B) 1:2
  • (C) 1:\(\sqrt{3}\)
  • (D) 1:3

Question 111:

A coil of resistance \(16 \Omega\) is placed with its plane perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field whose flux (\(\phi\) in \(10^{-3}\) weber) changes with time (t in second) as \(\phi = 5t^2+4t+2\). The induced current at time \(t=6\) seconds is

  • (A) 4 mA
  • (B) 2.12 mA
  • (C) 34 mA
  • (D) 74 mA

Question 112:

The small energy losses in transformers due to eddy currents can be reduced by

  • (A) winding the primary and secondary coils one over the other
  • (B) using thick wire
  • (C) using a laminated core
  • (D) using magnetic material with low hysteresis loss

Question 113:

If the electric field of a plane electromagnetic wave is \(E_z = 60\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) Vm\(^{-1}\), then the magnetic field of the wave is

  • (A) \(B_y = 2\times 10^{-7}\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) T
  • (B) \(B_z = 2\times 10^{-7}\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) T
  • (C) \(B_x = 180\times 10^8\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) T
  • (D) \(B_y = 180\times 10^8\sin(0.5\times 10^3x + 1.5\times 10^{11}t)\) T

Question 114:

In a photoelectric experiment, the slope of the graph drawn between stopping potential along y-axis and frequency of incident radiation along x-axis is (Planck's constant = \(6.6\times 10^{-34}\) Js)

  • (A) \(2.42\times 10^{15}\) JsC\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(10.56\times 10^{-15}\) JsC\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(4.125\times 10^{-15}\) JsC\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(6.25\times 10^{-20}\) JsC\(^{-1}\)

Question 115:

The maximum wavelength of incident radiation required to ionize a hydrogen atom in its ground state is nearly

  • (A) 912 nm
  • (B) 1215 A
  • (C) 912 A
  • (D) 1215 nm

Question 116:

When an element \(_{90}^{232}Th\) decays into \(_{82}^{208}Pb\), the number of \(\alpha\) and \(\beta^{-}\) particles emitted respectively are

  • (A) 4, 8
  • (B) 8, 2
  • (C) 6, 2
  • (D) 6, 4

Question 117:

During the disintegration of a radioactive nucleus of mass number 208 at rest, two alpha particles each with kinetic energy E are emitted. The total kinetic energy of the emitted alpha particles and the daughter nucleus after the disintegration is

  • (A) \(\frac{51E}{25}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{51E}{50}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{52E}{25}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{26E}{25}\)

Question 118:

The current amplification factor of a transistor in common emitter configuration is 80. If the emitter current is 2.43 mA, then the base current is

  • (A) 15 \(\mu\)A
  • (B) 1.5 \(\mu\)A
  • (C) 3 \(\mu\)A
  • (D) 30 \(\mu\)A

Question 119:

The negative feedback in an amplifier

  • (A) increases noise and distortion
  • (B) reduces noise and distortion
  • (C) reduces noise and increases distortion
  • (D) increases noise and reduces distortion

Question 120:

If the frequencies of the carrier wave and message signal are \(1\) MHz and \(28\) kHz respectively, then the frequencies of the side bands are

  • (A) \(1014\) kHz, \(986\) kHz
  • (B) \(1028\) kHz, \(972\) kHz
  • (C) \(29\) kHz, \(27\) kHz
  • (D) \(514\) kHz, \(486\) kHz

Question 121:

Observe the following statements
Statement-I: Rutherford model of an atom cannot explain the stability of an atom
Statement-II: The wavelength of X-rays is higher than the wavelength of microwaves
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct
  • (B) Both statements I and II are not correct
  • (C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
  • (D) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct

Question 122:

In hydrogen atom, an electron is transferred from an orbit of radius \(1.3225\) nm to another orbit of radius \(0.2116\) nm. What is the energy (in J) of emitted radiation? (Rydberg constant \(R_H \approx 1.097 \times 10^7 m^{-1}\))

  • (A) \(1.635\times 10^{-18}\)
  • (B) \(3.027\times 10^{-19}\)
  • (C) \(4.087\times 10^{-19}\)
  • (D) \(0.4578\times 10^{-18}\)

Question 123:

Identify the correct orders regarding atomic radii
i. \(Cl > F > Li\)
ii. \(P > C > N\)
iii. \(Tm > Sm > Eu\)
iv. \(Sr > Ca > Mg\)

 

  • (A) i, ii, iii only
  • (B) ii, iv only
  • (C) ii, iii, iv only
  • (D) iii, iv only

Question 124:

Match the following

  • (A) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-V
  • (B) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-V
  • (C) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-V
  • (D) A-III, B-V, C-I, D-IV

Question 125:

The atomic numbers of the elements X, Y, Z are \(a, a+1, a+2\) respectively. Z is an alkali metal. The nature of bonding in the compound formed by X and Z is

  • (A) Covalent
  • (B) Metallic
  • (C) Ionic
  • (D) Coordinate covalent

Question 126:

The sets of molecules in which central atom has no lone pair of electrons are:
i. \(SnCl_2, NH_3, SF_4\)
ii. \(HgCl_2, SO_3, SF_6\)
iii. \(BeCl_2, BF_3, PCl_5\)
iv. \(ClF_3, BrF_5, XeF_6\)

 

  • (A) i, iv only
  • (B) ii, iii only
  • (C) ii, iii, iv only
  • (D) i, ii, iii only

Question 127:

The isobars of one mole of an ideal gas were obtained at three different pressures \((p_1, p_2\) and \(p_3)\). The slopes of these isobars are \(m_1, m_2\) and \(m_3\) respectively. If \(p_1 < p_2 < p_3\), then the correct relation of the slopes is

  • (A) \(m_1 > m_2 > m_3\)
  • (B) \(m_1 < m_2 < m_3\)
  • (C) \(m_1 > m_3 > m_2\)
  • (D) \(m_1 = m_2 = m_3\)

Question 128:

\(100 mL\) of \(0.05 M Cu^{2+}\) aqueous solution is added to \(1 L\) of \(0.1 M KI\) solution. The number of moles of \(I_2\) and \(Cu_2I_2\) formed are respectively

  • (A) \(2.5\times 10^{-3}, 5\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (B) \(5\times 10^{-3}, 5\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (C) \(5\times 10^{-3}, 2.5\times 10^{-3}\)
  • (D) \(2.5\times 10^{-3}, 2.5\times 10^{-3}\)

Question 129:

The \(C_p\) of an ideal gas is \(10.314 J mol^{-1} K^{-1}\). One mole of this gas is expanded against a constant pressure of \(p atm\). The change in temperature during expansion is \(1.0 K\). The values of \(q\) (in J) and \(\Delta H\) (in \(J mol^{-1}\)) are respectively

  • (A) \(10.314, 10.314\)
  • (B) \(2.000, 10.314\)
  • (C) \(10.314, 2.000\)
  • (D) \(2.000, 2.000\)

Question 130:

At T(K), \(K_p\) value for the reaction, \(2AO_2(g)+O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2AO_3(g)\) is \(4\times 10^{10}\). What is the \(K'_p\) value for \(3AO_2(g)+\frac{3}{2}O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 3AO_3(g)\) at T(K)?

  • (A) \(16\times 10^{20}\)
  • (B) \(8\times 10^{20}\)
  • (C) \(16\times 10^{15}\)
  • (D) \(8\times 10^{15}\)

Question 131:

A sample of water contains \(Mg(HCO_3)_2\) and \(Ca(HCO_3)_2\). On boiling this water, these hydrogen carbonates are removed as precipitates. The precipitates are

  • (A) \(MgCO_3, CaCO_3\)
  • (B) \(Mg(OH)_2, Ca(OH)_2\)
  • (C) \(Mg(OH)_2, CaCO_3\)
  • (D) \(MgCO_3, Ca(OH)_2\)

Question 132:

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  • (A) Carbonates of alkaline earth metals are insoluble in water
  • (B) Beryllium halides are covalent in nature
  • (C) The super oxides of alkali metals are colourless
  • (D) Alkali metal halides have high negative enthalpies of formation

Question 133:

The order of negative standard potential values of \(Li, Na, K\) is

  • (A) \(Li > Na > K\)
  • (B) \(K > Na > Li\)
  • (C) \(Na > K > Li\)
  • (D) \(Li > K > Na\)

Question 134:

In which of the following reactions, hydrogen is evolved?
I. \(Reaction of sodium borohydride with iodine\)
II. \(Oxidation of diborane\)
III. \(Reaction of boron trifluoride with sodium hydride\)
IV. \(Hydrolysis of diborane\)

 

  • (A) I, IV only
  • (B) I, II only
  • (C) III, IV only
  • (D) I, II, IV only

Question 135:

Which of the following statements is not correct regarding the gas evolved by the reaction of dilute \(HCl\) on \(CaCO_3\)?

  • (A) It is colourless, odourless gas
  • (B) It has least solubility in water
  • (C) It is acidic in nature
  • (D) It is poisonous gas

Question 136:

Observe the following statements
Statement-I: The carbon containing components of photochemical smog are acrolein, methanal and PAN
Statement-II: The number of greenhouse gases in the list given below is 5
\(CH_4, CO_2, NO, H_2O(l), H_2O(g), O_2, O_3\)
The correct answer is

  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct
  • (B) Both statements I and II are not correct
  • (C) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
  • (D) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct

Question 137:

The condensed, bond line and complete formulae of n-butane are respectively

  • (A) II, I, III
  • (B) I, II, III
  • (C) I, III, II
  • (D) II, III, I

Question 138:

'X' is the isomer of \(C_6H_{14}\). It has four primary carbons and two tertiary carbons. 'X' can be prepared from which of the following reaction?

  • (A) \(Reaction with Ni/\Delta and H_2\) (Hydrogenation)
  • (B) \(Reaction of a halide with Na/dry ether\) (Wurtz Reaction)
  • (C) \(Reaction of a halide with Zn/H^+\) (Reduction)
  • (D) \(Reaction of a halide with Na/dry ether\) (Wurtz Reaction)

Question 139:

What are X and Y respectively in the following reaction sequence?
\[ Iso-pentane \xrightarrow{KMnO_4} X \xrightarrow{\substack{20%\,H_3PO_4
358\,K}} Y \]

  • (A) \(Structure 1, Structure 2\)
  • (B) \(Structure 3, Structure 4\)
  • (C) \(Structure 1, Structure 4\)
  • (D) \(Structure 3, Structure 2\)

Question 140:

What are X and Y respectively in the following reaction sequence?

  • (A) \(CH_3Cl, CH_3COCl\)
  • (B) \(C_2H_5Cl, CH_3COCl\)
  • (C) \(CH_3COCl, CH_3Cl\)
  • (D) \(C_2H_5COCl, CH_3Cl\)

Question 141:

A metal (M), crystallizes in \(fcc\) lattice with edge length of \(4.242 A\). What is the radius of \(M\) atom (in \(A\))?

  • (A) 1.25
  • (B) 1.75
  • (C) 1.5
  • (D) 1.0

Question 142:

A solid mixture weighing \(5 g\) contains equal number of moles of \(Na_2CO_3\) and \(NaHCO_3\). This solid mixture was dissolved in \(1 L\) of water. What is the volume (in \(mL\)) of \(0.1 M HCl\) required to completely react with this \(1 L\) mixture solution?

  • (A) 157.8
  • (B) 789.0
  • (C) 1578.0
  • (D) 946.8

Question 143:

At \(298 K\) the equilibrium constant for the reaction, \(M(s)+2Ag^+(aq) \rightleftharpoons M^{2+}(aq)+2Ag(s)\) is \(10^{15}\). What is the \(E_{cell}^{\circ}\) (in \(V\)) for this reaction? (\(\frac{2.303 RT}{F} = 0.06 V\))

  • (A) 0.45
  • (B) 0.90
  • (C) 0.225
  • (D) 1.10

Question 144:

\(A\to P\) is a first order reaction. At \(300 K\) this reaction was started with \([A]=0.5 molL^{-1}\). The rate constant of reaction was \(0.125 min^{-1}\). The same reaction was started separately with \([A]=1 molL^{-1}\) at \(300 K\). The rate constant (in \(min^{-1}\)) now is

  • (A) 0.25
  • (B) 0.50
  • (C) 0.125
  • (D) 1.00

Question 145:

Observe the following reactions
I. \(CO(g)+H_2(g) \xrightarrow{X} HCHO(g)\)
II. \(CO(g)+3H_2(g) \xrightarrow{Y} CH_4(g)+H_2O(g)\)
The catalysts \(X\) and \(Y\) in the above reactions are respectively

  • (A) \(Cu, Cu\)
  • (B) \(Ni, Ni\)
  • (C) \(Cu, Ni\)
  • (D) \(Ni, Cu\)

Question 146:

Composition of siderite ore is

  • (A) \(FeCO_3\)
  • (B) \(ZnCO_3\)
  • (C) \(CuCO_3 \cdot Cu(OH)_2\)
  • (D) \(CuFeS_2\)

Question 147:

Which of the following gives more number of oxides on reacting with \(HCl\)?

  • (A) \(Na_2CO_3\)
  • (B) \(NaNO_2\)
  • (C) \(Na_2SO_3\)
  • (D) \(NaHCO_3\)

Question 148:

The number of lone pairs of electrons on the central atom of \(XeO_3, XeOF_4\) and \(XeF_6\) respectively is

  • (A) 1, 1, 1
  • (B) 3, 2, 1
  • (C) 2, 1, 0
  • (D) 1, 2, 1

Question 149:

Which of the following statements is not correct?

  • (A) \(TeO_2\) is an oxidizing agent
  • (B) \(SeO_3\) is acidic in nature
  • (C) \(SeO_2\) is a gas
  • (D) \(SO_2\) is reducing agent

Question 150:

The pair of ions with paramagnetic nature and same number of electrons is

  • (A) \(Lu^{3+}, Yb^{2+}\)
  • (B) \(Eu^{3+}, Pm^{2+}\)
  • (C) \(Eu^{2+}, Gd^{3+}\)
  • (D) \(La^{3+}, Ce^{4+}\)

Question 151:

Observe the following complex ions Identify the option in which the unpaired electrons in the complex ions are in correct increasing order

  • (A) C, A, B, D
  • (B) B, A, C, D
  • (C) D, A, B, C
  • (D) D, B, A, C

Question 152:

The polymer chains are held together by hydrogen bonding in a polymer X. Polymer X is formed from monomers Y and Z. What are Y and Z?

  • (A) A, C
  • (B) B, E
  • (C) C, D
  • (D) A, A

Question 153:

Amino acid 'X' contains phenolic hydroxy group and amino acid 'Y' contains amide group. 'X' and 'Y' respectively are

  • (A) \(Ser, Arg\)
  • (B) \(Cys, Lys\)
  • (C) \(Thr, Asn\)
  • (D) \(Tyr, Gln\)

Question 154:

The chemical X is used in the prevention of heart attack. The structure of X is



  • (A) \(Structure 1\) (\(Acetylsalicylic acid\))
  • (B) \(Structure 2\) (\(Indole\))
  • (C) \(Structure 3\) (\(p-Amino-benzenesulfonamide\))
  • (D) \(Structure 4\) (\(Ketone\))

Question 155:

Observe the following reactions reaction is

  • (A) \(X > Y > Z\)
  • (B) \(X > Z > Y\)
  • (C) \(Y > X > Z\)
  • (D) \(Y > Z > X\)

Question 156:

Consider the following set of reactions.
\(C_6H_5CN \xrightarrow{B} Y \xrightarrow{A} X (reacts with 2,4-DNP)\)
\(C_6H_5CN \xrightarrow{A} X (dissolves in dil. HCl)\)
What are A and B respectively?

  • (A) \(LiAlH_4, H_2O; H_2/Ni\)
  • (B) \(Na/Hg, C_2H_5OH; DIBAL-H, H_2O\)
  • (C) \(DIBAL-H, H_2O; LiAlH_4, H_2O\)
  • (D) \(Na/Hg, C_2H_5OH; H_2/Ni\)

Question 157:

An alcohol X (\(C_5H_{12}O\)) produces turbidity instantly with conc. \(HCl/ZnCl_2\). Isomer (Y) of \(X\) undergoes dehydration with conc. \(H_2SO_4\) at \(443 K\). \(X\) and \(Y\) respectively are

  • (A) \(Structure 1, Structure 2\)
  • (B) \(Structure 2, Structure 1\)
  • (C) \(Structure 3, Structure 4\)
  • (D) \(Structure 4, Structure 3\)

Question 158:

What are \(X\) and \(Y\) in the following reaction sequence?
\(C_5H_{12}O \xrightarrow{Cu/573 K} C_5H_{10} \xrightarrow{(i) O_3, (ii) Zn+H_2O} X + Y\)

  • (A) Acetone + Acetaldehyde (\(CH_3COCH_3 + CH_3CHO\))
  • (B) \(C_3H_7CH_2CH_2OH\) (Incorrect formula)
  • (C) \(C_4H_9CHO\) (Incorrect formula)
  • (D) \(C_4H_9OH\) (Incorrect formula)

Question 159:

Observe the following set of reactions

{l} \(C_6H_5COCl \xrightarrow{X} C_6H_5CHO\)
\(C_6H_5COCl \xrightarrow{Y} C_6H_5COCH_3\)
\(C_6H_5CHO \xrightarrow{OH^-/293 K} Z (Major product)\)

What are \(X, Y\) and \(Z\) respectively?

  • (A) \(H_2/Pd; (CH_3)_2Cd; C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\) (This is wrong \(C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\) is stilbene)
  • (B) \(LiAlH_4, H_3O^+; CH_3MgBr; C_6H_5-C=CH-C_6H_5\)
  • (C) \(H_2/Pd-BaSO_4; (CH_3)_2Cd; C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\)
  • (D) \(H_2/Pd-BaSO_4; CH_3MgBr; C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\)
Correct Answer: (D) \(\text{H}_2/\text{Pd}-\text{BaSO}_4; \text{CH}_3\text{MgBr}; \text{C}_6\text{H}_5\text{CH}=\text{CH}-\text{C}_6\text{H}_5\)
View Solution



Step 1: Identify reagent X (Reduction of acyl chloride to aldehyde).

The reaction is: \[ C_6H_5COCl \xrightarrow{X} C_6H_5CHO \]
This is the partial reduction of an acyl chloride to an aldehyde.

Reagent \(X\) must be \(H_2/Pd-BaSO_4\) (Rosenmund reduction).

Hence, \(\boxed{X = H_2/Pd-BaSO_4}\)


Step 2: Identify reagent Y (Formation of ketone).

The reaction: \[ C_6H_5COCl \xrightarrow{Y} C_6H_5COCH_3 \]
This can be done using a dialkyl cadmium reagent \((CH_3)_2Cd\) or a Grignard reagent \((CH_3MgBr)\).

Though organocadmium is more specific, the question provides \(CH_3MgBr\) as the option, so we take: \[ \boxed{Y = CH_3MgBr} \]

Step 3: Identify product Z.

The reaction is: \[ C_6H_5CHO \xrightarrow{OH^-/293\,K} Z \]
Under basic conditions, Benzaldehyde can undergo condensation reactions. If the product is given as \(C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5\) (Stilbene), it indicates an aldol-type or Wittig-type condensation product.

Hence, \(\boxed{Z = C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5}\) \; (Stilbene).

Step 4: Final Answer Summary.
\[ \text{X = H_2/Pd-BaSO_4, \quad Y = CH_3MgBr, \quad Z = C_6H_5CH=CH-C_6H_5 \] Quick Tip: The Rosenmund reduction (\(H_2/Pd-BaSO_4\)) is a name reaction for the partial reduction of acyl chlorides to aldehydes. Organometallic reagents like \(R_2Cd\) are best for ketone synthesis. Aldol condensation of aromatic aldehydes with base (like \(C_6H_5CHO\)) is typically a Cannizzaro reaction, unless a strong nucleophile is added.


Question 160:

Consider the following set of reactions.
\(C_6H_5CN \xrightarrow{B} Y (reacts with 2,4-DNP) \xrightarrow{A} X (dissolves in dil. HCl)\)
What are A and B respectively?

  • (A) \(LiAlH_4, H_2O; H_2/Ni\)
  • (B) \(Na/Hg, C_2H_5OH; DIBAL-H, H_2O\)
  • (C) \(DIBAL-H, H_2O; LiAlH_4, H_2O\)
  • (D) \(Na/Hg, C_2H_5OH; H_2/Ni\)

TS EAMCET 2025 Expected Difficulty Level

Based on the analysis of past shifts and expert opinions, the TS EAMCET 2025 Question Paper for the Engineering exam, May 4th 2025 Shift 2, is expected to be of a moderate difficulty level.

Subject Expected Difficulty Level Key Observations
Mathematics Moderate to Tough It is expected to have Lengthy calculation-based questions with emphasis on vectors, calculus, and coordinate geometry
Physics Moderate It is expected to have Conceptually based numericals with a focus on thermodynamics, optics, and electrodynamics
Chemistry Easy to Moderate It will be mostly NCERT-based, with questions from chemical bonding and organic chemistry
Overall Moderate Balanced paper with a mix of direct and application-based questions

TS EAMCET 2025 Topic-Wise Weightage

The TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering Exam has a total of 160 multiple-choice questions that are allocated in the following pattern: Mathematics (80), Physics (40), and Chemistry (40).

Understanding of topic-wise weightage helps candidates to estimate the topics that can be asked in the TS EAMCET Question Paper.

Mathematics (80 Questions)

Topic Expected Questions Approximate Weightage (%)
Algebra 10–12 12%
Calculus 12–14 15%
Coordinate Geometry 10–12 12%
Trigonometry 8–10 10%
Probability & Statistics 8–10 10%
Vector Algebra 6–8 8%

Physics (40 Questions)

Topic Expected Questions Approximate Weightage (%)
Mechanics 10–12 25%
Thermodynamics 6–8 15%
Electromagnetism 6–8 15%
Optics 4–6 10%
Modern Physics 4–6 10%

Chemistry (40 Questions)

Topic Expected Questions Approximate Weightage (%)
Organic Chemistry 12–14 30%
Inorganic Chemistry 10–12 25%
Physical Chemistry 12–14 30%