The TS EAMCET 2025 Engineering exam was conducted on May 2, 2025, from 3:00 P.M. to 6:00 P.M. The overall difficulty level of the paper was moderate to tough.

The TS EAMCET Question Paper with Solution PDF is available here for download.

As per the exam pattern, the TS EAMCET 2025 exam was conducted in CBT mode with 160 MCQs in a total of 160 marks in 3 hours (180 minutes), 1 mark is awarded for each correct answer, and no negative marking for incorrect answers.

TS EAMCET 2025 Question Paper with Solution PDF

TS EAMCET 2025 May 2 Shift 2 Question Paper with Answer Key Download PDF Check Solution
TS EAMCET 2025 May 2 Shift 2 Question Paper with Solution

Question 1:

If \( f: \mathbb{R}-\{0\} \to \mathbb{R} \) is defined by \( 3f(x) + 4f\left(\frac{1}{x}\right) = \frac{2-x}{x} \), then \( f(3) = \)

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 12
  • (C) 9
  • (D) 3

Question 2:

The inverse of the function \( y = \frac{10^x - 10^{-x}}{10^x + 10^{-x}} + 1 \) is \( x = \)

  • (A) \( \log\left(\frac{y}{2-y}\right) \)
  • (B) \( \log_{10}\left(\frac{y}{2-y}\right) \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{10}\log\left(\frac{y}{1-y}\right) \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2}\log_{10}\left(\frac{y}{2-y}\right) \)

Question 3:

The value of the greatest positive integer \( k \), such that \( 49^k + 1 \) is a factor of \( 48(49^{125} + 49^{124} + \dots + 49^2 + 49 + 1) \) is

  • (A) 32
  • (B) 63
  • (C) 65
  • (D) 60

Question 4:

If \( \left| \begin{matrix} 1 & 2 & 3-\lambda
0 & -1-\lambda & 2
1-\lambda & 1 & 3 \end{matrix} \right| = A\lambda^3 + B\lambda^2 + C\lambda + D \), then \( D+A = \)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) -4
  • (C) -5
  • (D) 3

Question 5:

If \( A+2B = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 0
6 & -3 & 3
-5 & 3 & 1 \end{bmatrix} \) and \( 2A-B = \begin{bmatrix} 2 & -1 & 5
2 & -1 & 6
0 & 1 & 2 \end{bmatrix} \), then \( tr(A) - tr(B) = \)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 6:

A, C are \( 3 \times 3 \) matrices. B, D are \( 3 \times 1 \) matrices. If \( AX=B \) has a unique solution and \( CX=D \) has an infinite number of solutions, then

  • (A) rank of \( [A:D] = rank of [C:B] \)
  • (B) rank of \( A = rank of C \)
  • (C) rank of \( [A:B] < rank of [B:D] \)
  • (D) rank of \( [A:D] \ge rank of [C:B] \)

Question 7:

A and B are two non-square matrices. If \( P = A + B \), \( Q = A^TB \), \( R = AB^T \), then the matrices whose order is equal to the order of A are

  • (A) PQ and QR
  • (B) RQ and QP
  • (C) PQ and RP
  • (D) PQR and RPQ

Question 8:

\( \omega \) is a complex cube root of unity and \( Z \) is a complex number satisfying \( |Z-1| \le 2 \). The possible values of \( r \) such that \( |Z-1| \le 2 \) and \( |\omega Z - 1 - \omega^2| = r \) have no common solution are

  • (A) \( 0 \le r \le 4 \)
  • (B) \( r = |\omega| \) only
  • (C) \( r > 4 \)
  • (D) \( 1 < r < 2 \)

Question 9:

If \( |Z|=2 \), \( Z_1 = \frac{Z}{2}e^{i\alpha} \) and \( \theta \) is the amp(Z), then \( \frac{Z_1^n - Z_1^{-n}}{Z_1^n + Z_1^{-n}} = \)

  • (A) \( 2^n i \tan(n\theta + n\alpha) \)
  • (B) \( i \tan(n\theta - n\alpha) \)
  • (C) \( i \tan(n\theta + n\alpha) \)
  • (D) \( \tan(n\theta + n\alpha) \)

Question 10:

If \( n, K \in \mathbb{N} \) such that \( n \neq 3K \), then \( (\sqrt{3}+i)^{2n} + (\sqrt{3}-i)^{2n} = \)

  • (A) \( (-1)^n 2^{2n+1} \)
  • (B) \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^{2n+1} \)
  • (C) \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^{2n} \)
  • (D) \( (-1)^{n+1} 2^n \)

Question 11:

In Argand plane, no value of \( \sqrt[3]{1-i\sqrt{3}} \) lie in

  • (A) First quadrant
  • (B) Second quadrant
  • (C) Third quadrant
  • (D) Fourth quadrant

Question 12:

If \( l \) is the maximum value of \( -3x^2+4x+1 \) and \( m \) is the minimum value of \( 3x^2+4x+1 \), then the equation of the hyperbola having foci at \( (l,0), (7m,0) \) and eccentricity as 2 is

  • (A) \( 36x^2 - 12y^2 = 49 \)
  • (B) \( 2x^2 - 5y^2 = 1 \)
  • (C) \( 49x^2 - 36y^2 = 12 \)
  • (D) \( 36x^2 - 12y^2 = 1 \)

Question 13:

If the equation \( x^2 - 3ax + a^2 - 2a - K = 0 \) has different real roots for every rational number \( a \), then \( K \) lies in the interval

  • (A) \( 0 < K < \frac{4}{5} \)
  • (B) \( -\infty < K < \frac{4}{5} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{4}{5} < K < \infty \)
  • (D) \( -\infty < K < \infty \)

Question 14:

The number of all common roots of the equation \( x^4 - 10x^3 + 37x^2 - 60x + 36 = 0 \) and the transformed equation of it obtained by increasing any two distinct roots of it by 1, keeping the other two roots fixed, is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 2

Question 15:

If \( \alpha, \beta, \gamma \) are the roots of the equation \( x^3 - Px^2 + Qx - R = 0 \) and \( (\alpha-2)^2, (\beta-2)^2, (\gamma-2)^2 \) are the roots of the equation \( x^3 - 5x^2 + 4x = 0 \), then the possible least value of \( P+Q+R \) is

  • (A) 5
  • (B) -7
  • (C) -1
  • (D) 1

Question 16:

The number of non negative integral solutions of the equation \( x+y+z+t=10 \) when \( x \ge 2, z \ge 5 \) is

  • (A) 80
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 50
  • (D) 10

Question 17:

The number of integers lying between 1000 and 10000 such that the sum of all the digits in each of those numbers becomes 30 is

  • (A) 84
  • (B) 96
  • (C) 45
  • (D) 75

Question 18:

If all the letters of the word MOST are permuted and the words (with or without meaning) thus obtained are arranged in the dictionary order then the rank of the word STOM when counted from the rank of the word MOST, is

  • (A) 24
  • (B) 21
  • (C) 12
  • (D) 18

Question 19:

The constant term in the expansion of \( \left(1+\frac{1}{x}\right)^{20} \left(30x(1+x)^{29} + (1+x)^{30}\right) \) is

  • (A) \( {}^{50}C_{20} + 30 \cdot {}^{50}C_{29} \)
  • (B) \( {}^{50}C_{19} + 30 \cdot {}^{49}C_{19} \)
  • (C) \( {}^{50}C_{20} + 30 \cdot {}^{49}C_{20} \)
  • (D) \( {}^{50}C_{20} + 30 \cdot {}^{49}C_{19} \)

Question 20:

When \( |x| > 3 \), the coefficient of \( \frac{1}{x^n} \) in the expansion of \( x^{3/2} (3+x)^{1/2} \) is

  • (A) \( (-1)^n \frac{1.3.5 \dots (2n-1)}{2^n n!} 3^n \)
  • (B) \( (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1.3.5 \dots (2n+1)}{2^{n+2} (n+2)!} 3^{n+2} \)
  • (C) \( (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1.3.5 \dots (2n-1)}{2^n n!} 3^{n+1} \)
  • (D) \( (-1)^{n+1} \frac{1.3.5 \dots (2n+1)}{2^{n+3} (n+2)!} 3^{n+1} \)

Question 21:

If \( \frac{x^2-3}{(x+2)(x^2+1)} = \frac{A}{x+2} + \frac{Bx+C}{x^2+1} \), then \( 3A+2B-C = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{8}{5} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{16}{5} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{3}{5} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{19}{5} \)

Question 22:

If \( 5\sin\theta + 3\cos\left(\theta + \frac{\pi}{3}\right) + 3 \) lies between \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) (including \( \alpha, \beta \) also), then \( (\alpha-\beta)(\alpha+\beta-6) = \)

  • (A) \( 28-5\sqrt{3} \)
  • (B) 0
  • (C) 3
  • (D) \( 28+5\sqrt{3} \)

Question 23:

\( \frac{\sin 1^\circ + \sin 2^\circ + \dots + \sin 89^\circ}{2(\cos 1^\circ + \cos 2^\circ + \dots + \cos 44^\circ) + 1} = \)

  • (A) 2
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{1}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \sqrt{2} \)

Question 24:

If \( 3\sin(\alpha-\beta) = 5\cos(\alpha+\beta) \) and \( \alpha+\beta \neq \frac{\pi}{2} \), then \( \frac{\tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-\alpha)}{\tan(\frac{\pi}{4}-\beta)} = \)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) -4
  • (C) \( -\frac{1}{4} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{1}{2} \)

Question 25:

1 + \cos x + \cos^2 x + \cos^3 x + \dots to \infty = 4+2\sqrt{3}, then x =

  • (A) \( n\pi \)
  • (B) \( (4n \pm 1)\frac{\pi}{3} \)
  • (C) \( (12n \pm 1)\frac{\pi}{6} \)
  • (D) \( (3n \pm 1)\frac{\pi}{3} \)

Question 26:

Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): When \( x, y, z \) are positive numbers, then \[ \tan^{-1}\left( \sqrt{\frac{x(x+y+z)}{yz}} \right) + \tan^{-1}\left( \sqrt{\frac{y(x+y+z)}{xz}} \right) + \tan^{-1}\left( \sqrt{\frac{z(x+y+z)}{xy}} \right) = \pi \]
Reason (R): \( \tan^{-1}a + \tan^{-1}b = \tan^{-1}\left( \frac{a+b}{1-ab} \right) \) if \( a > 0 \) and \( b > 0 \).

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 27:

If \( e^{(\sinh^{-1} 2 + \cosh^{-1} \sqrt{6})} = a + (b+\sqrt{c})\sqrt{a} + b\sqrt{c} \), then \( a+b+c = \)

  • (A) 13
  • (B) 15
  • (C) 17
  • (D) 11

Question 28:

In a triangle ABC, if \( r_1=4 \), \( r_2=8 \) and \( r_3=24 \), then \( a:b:c = \)

  • (A) 4:7:9
  • (B) 2:3:5
  • (C) 1:2:6
  • (D) 6:2:1

Question 29:

In a triangle ABC, \( (r_2 + r_3)\sec^2\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) = \)

(Note: Based on the answer key and standard identities, the function is interpreted as \( \sec^2 \)).

  • (A) \( 4R \cot\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) \)
  • (B) \( 2R \cot^2\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) \)
  • (C) \( 4R \)
  • (D) \( 2R \tan\left(\frac{A}{2}\right) \)

Question 30:

A, B, C, D are any four points. If E and F are mid points of AC and BD respectively, then \( \vec{AB}+\vec{CB}+\vec{CD}+\vec{AD} = \)

  • (A) \( \vec{EF} \)
  • (B) \( 2\vec{EF} \)
  • (C) \( 3\vec{EF} \)
  • (D) \( 4\vec{EF} \)

Question 31:

The four points whose position vectors are given by \( 2\bar{a}+3\bar{b}-\bar{c} \), \( \bar{a}-2\bar{b}+3\bar{c} \), \( 3\bar{a}+4\bar{b}-2\bar{c} \) and \( \bar{a}-6\bar{b}+6\bar{c} \) are

  • (A) Collinear
  • (B) Coplanar
  • (C) Vertices of a square
  • (D) Vertices of a rectangle

Question 32:

If \( a=|\bar{a}| \); \( b=|\bar{b}| \) then \( \left(\frac{\bar{a}}{a^2} - \frac{\bar{b}}{b^2}\right)^2 = \)

  • (A) \( \left(\frac{\bar{a}-\bar{b}}{a^2b^2}\right)^2 \)
  • (B) \( \left(\frac{\bar{a}-\bar{b}}{ab}\right)^2 \)
  • (C) \( \left(\frac{b\bar{a}-a\bar{b}}{ab}\right)^2 \)
  • (D) \( \left(\frac{a\bar{a}-b\bar{b}}{a^2b^2}\right)^2 \)

Question 33:

\( \bar{a}, \bar{b}, \bar{c} \) are three unit vectors such that \( x\bar{a} + y\bar{b} + z\bar{c} = p(\bar{b} \times \bar{c}) + q(\bar{c} \times \bar{a}) + r(\bar{a} \times \bar{b}) \). If \( (\bar{a},\bar{b})=(\bar{b},\bar{c})=(\bar{c},\bar{a})=\frac{\pi}{3} \), \( (\bar{a}, \bar{b} \times \bar{c})=\frac{\pi}{6} \) and \( \bar{a}, \bar{b}, \bar{c} \) form a right-handed system, then \( \frac{x+y+z}{p+q+r} = \)

  • (A) \( \frac{3}{4} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}} \)
  • (C) \( 2\sqrt{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3}{8} \)

Question 34:

Let A be a point having position vector \( \vec{i}-3\vec{j} \) and \( \bar{r} = (\vec{i}-3\vec{j}) + t(\vec{j}-2\vec{k}) \) be a line. If P is a point on this line and is at a minimum distance from the plane \( \bar{r} \cdot (2\vec{i}+3\vec{j}+5\vec{k}) = 0 \), then the equation of the plane through P and perpendicular to AP is

  • (A) \( \bar{r} \cdot (-\vec{j}+2\vec{k}) = 8 \)
  • (B) \( \bar{r} \cdot (\vec{j}+\vec{k}) = 4 \)
  • (C) \( \bar{r} \cdot (\vec{i}+\vec{j}+\vec{k}) = 8 \)
  • (D) \( \bar{r} \cdot (\vec{i}-\vec{j}) = 12 \)

Question 35:

If the variance of the numbers \( 9, 15, 21, \dots, (6n+3) \) is P, then the variance of the first \( n \) even numbers is

  • (A) 9P
  • (B) 3P
  • (C) P/9
  • (D) P/3

Question 36:

Let \( P = \begin{bmatrix} 1 & 2 & 3
4 & 5 & 6
7 & 8 & 9 \end{bmatrix} \) be a matrix. Three elements of this matrix P are selected at random. A is the event of having the three elements whose sum is odd. B is the event of selecting the three elements which are in a row or column. Then \( P(A) + P(A|B) = \)

  • (A) 221/420
  • (B) 17/21
  • (C) 21/20
  • (D) 3/2

Question 37:

A, B1, B2, B3 are the events in a random experiment. If \( P(B_1)=0.25, P(B_2)=0.30, P(B_3)=0.45 \), \( P(A|B_1)=0.05, P(A|B_2)=0.04, P(A|B_3)=0.03 \), then \( P(B_2|A) = \)

  • (A) 6/19
  • (B) 8/19
  • (C) 12/19
  • (D) 5/19

Question 38:

A, B are the events in a random experiment. If \( P(A)=\frac{1}{2}, P(B)=\frac{1}{3}, P(A \cap B)=\frac{1}{4} \), then \( P(A^c | B^c) + P(A | B) = \)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 4/5
  • (C) 11/8
  • (D) 7/3

Question 39:

Two persons A and B play a game by throwing two dice. If the sum of the numbers appeared on the two dice is even, A will get \( \frac{1}{2} \) point and B will get \( \frac{1}{2} \) point. If the sum is odd, A will get one point and B will get no point. The arithmetic mean of the random variable of the number of points of A is

  • (A) 1/2
  • (B) 1/4
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 3/4

Question 40:

A typist claims that he prepares a typed page with typo errors of 1 per 10 pages. In a typing assignment of 40 pages, if the probability that the typo errors are at most 2 is p, then \(e^2 p =\)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 13
  • (C) \(13e^{-2}\)
  • (D) \(5e^{-2}\)

Question 41:

A line segment joining a point A on x-axis to a point B on y-axis is such that AB = 15. If P is a point on AB such that \(\frac{AP}{PB} = \frac{2}{3}\), then the locus of P is

  • (A) \(x = 9\cos\theta, y = 6\sin\theta\)
  • (B) \(x = 6\cos\theta, y = 9\sin\theta\)
  • (C) \(x = 6\cos\theta, y = 6\sin\theta\)
  • (D) \(x = 9\cos\theta, y = 9\sin\theta\)

Question 42:

The point \(P(\alpha, \beta)\) (\(\alpha>0, \beta>0\)) undergoes the following transformations successively.

a) Translation to a distance of 3 units in positive direction of x-axis.

b) Reflection about the line \(y=-x\).

c) Rotation of axes through an angle of \(\frac{\pi}{4}\) about the origin in the positive direction.

If the final position of that point P is \((-4\sqrt{2}, -2\sqrt{2})\), then \((\alpha + \beta) =\)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 7
  • (C) \(6\sqrt{2}\)
  • (D) \(2\sqrt{2}\)

Question 43:

If the line passing through the point \((4, -3)\) and having negative slope makes an angle of \(45^\circ\) with the line joining the points \((1,1), (2,3)\) then the sum of intercepts of that line is

  • (A) 3
  • (B) 1
  • (C) 12
  • (D) \(\frac{26}{3}\)

Question 44:

O(0,0), B(-3,-1), C(-1,-3) are vertices of a triangle OBC. D is a point on OC and E is a point on OB. If the equation of DE is \(2x + 2y + \sqrt{2} = 0\), then the ratio in which the line DE divides the altitude of the triangle OBC is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{2} : 4\sqrt{2} + 2\)
  • (B) \(1 : 4\sqrt{2} + 1\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{2} : 4\sqrt{2} - 2\)
  • (D) \(1 : 4\sqrt{2} - 1\)

Question 45:

Every point on the curve \(3x + 2y - 3xy = 0\) is the centroid of a triangle formed by the coordinate axes and a line (L) intersecting both the coordinate axes. Then all such lines (L)

  • (A) are parallel
  • (B) are concurrent
  • (C) intersect each other at different points
  • (D) are perpendicular to the tangents to the curve

Question 46:

The value of 'a' for which the equation \((a^2-3)x^2 + 16xy - 2ay^2 + 4x - 8y - 2 = 0\) represents a pair of perpendicular lines is

  • (A) 2
  • (B) -1
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 47:

The slope of a common tangent to the circles \(x^2 + y^2 = 16\) and \((x-9)^2 + y^2 = 16\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{13}}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{4}{\sqrt{13}}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{\sqrt{17}}{8}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{8}{\sqrt{17}}\)

Question 48:

The equation of the circle whose radius is 3 and which touches the circle \(x^2 + y^2 - 4x - 6y - 12 = 0\) internally at \((-1, -1)\) is

  • (A) \(5x^2 + 5y^2 - 8x - 14y - 32 = 0\)
  • (B) \(x^2 + y^2 - 12x - 14y - 28 = 0\)
  • (C) \(3x^2 + 3y^2 - 8x - 14y - 31 = 0\)
  • (D) \(x^2 + y^2 - 5x - 7y - 14 = 0\)

Question 49:

Suppose C1 and C2 are two circles having no common points, then

  • (A) There will be 3 common tangents to C1 and C2
  • (B) There will be exactly two common tangents to C1 and C2
  • (C) There will be no common tangent or there will be exactly two common tangents to C1 and C2
  • (D) There will be no common tangents or there will be four common tangents to C1 and C2

Question 50:

The locus of the centre of the circle touching the x-axis and passing through the point \((-1,1)\) is

  • (A) a circle with centre at \((-1, \frac{1}{2})\)
  • (B) a pair of lines intersecting at \((-1, 1)\)
  • (C) a parabola with focus at \((-1,1)\)
  • (D) a hyperbola with centre at \((-1,1)\)

Question 51:

The centres of all circles passing through the points of intersection of the circles \(x^2 + y^2 + 2x - 2y + 1 = 0\) and \(x^2 + y^2 - 2x + 2y - 2 = 0\) and having radius \(\sqrt{14}\) lie on the curve

  • (A) \(x + y = 0\)
  • (B) \(y^2 = 4x - 2\)
  • (C) \(3x^2 + 5x = y\)
  • (D) \(2x^2 + 3y^2 = 7\)

Question 52:

A circle S given by \(x^2 + y^2 - 14x + 6y + 33 = 0\) cuts the X-axis at A and B (OB \(>\) OA). C is midpoint of AB. L is a line through C and having slope \((-1)\). If L is the diameter of a circle S' and also the radical axis of the circles S and S', then the equation of the circle S' is

  • (A) \(x^2 + y^2 - 17x + 3y + 54 = 0\)
  • (B) \(x^2 + y^2 + 17x - 3y - 54 = 0\)
  • (C) \(x^2 + y^2 - 17x + 3y + 51 = 0\)
  • (D) \(x^2 + y^2 - 3x + 17y - 51 = 0\)

Question 53:

For the parabola \(y = x^2 - 3x + 2\), match the items in list-1 to that of the items in list-2.

S is a focus, Z is intersection of axis and directrix, P is one end point of latus rectum, Q is the point on the parabola at which tangent is parallel to X-axis


List-1 \hspace{4cm List-2

A \hspace{0.5cm P \hspace{3.5cm I \hspace{0.5cm \((2,0)\)

B \hspace{0.5cm Q \hspace{3.5cm II \hspace{0.4cm \((\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{1}{4})\)

C \hspace{0.5cm S \hspace{3.5cm III \hspace{0.3cm \((\frac{3}{2}, 0)\)

D \hspace{0.5cm Z \hspace{3.5cm IV \hspace{0.3cm \((\frac{3}{2}, -\frac{1}{2})\)

\hspace{5cm V \hspace{0.4cm \((0, \frac{3}{2})\)

  • (A) A -- I, B -- II, C -- III, D -- IV
  • (B) A -- I, B -- II, C -- V, D -- IV
  • (C) A -- II, B -- V, C -- III, D -- IV
  • (D) A -- IV, B -- V, C -- III, D -- I

Question 54:

The locus of a point which divides the line segment joining the focus and any point on the parabola \(y^2 = 12x\) in the ratio \(m:n\) (\(m+n \ne 0\)) is a parabola. Then the length of the latus rectum of that parabola is

  • (A) \(\frac{m}{m+n}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{12m}{m+n}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{m}{12(m+n)}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{n}{12(m+n)}\)

Question 55:

The curve represented by \(\frac{x^2}{12-\alpha} + \frac{y^2}{\alpha-10} = 1\) is

  • (A) a hyperbola for some values of \(\alpha\) in \((10,12)\)
  • (B) an ellipse for all values of \(\alpha\) in \((10,12)\)
  • (C) a circle for some value of \(\alpha\) in \((10,12)\)
  • (D) a hyperbola for all values of \(\alpha\) in \((10,12)\)

Question 56:

If any tangent drawn to the ellipse \(\frac{x^2}{16} + \frac{y^2}{9} = 1\) touches one of the circles \(x^2 + y^2 = \alpha^2\), then the range of \(\alpha\) is

  • (A) \(9 \le \alpha \le 16\)
  • (B) \(16 \le \alpha \le 25\)
  • (C) \(3 \le \alpha \le 4\)
  • (D) \(4 \le \alpha \le 6\)

Question 57:

Let \(x\) be the eccentricity of a hyperbola whose transverse axis is twice its conjugate axis. Let \(y\) be the eccentricity of another hyperbola for which the distance between the foci is 3 times the distance between its directrices. Then \(y^2 - x^2 =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{23}{4}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{7}{4}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{4}{7}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{16}{23}\)

Question 58:

O(0,0,0), A(3,1,4), B(1,3,2) and C(0,4,-2) are the vertices of a tetrahedron. If G is the centroid of the tetrahedron and \(G_1\) is the centroid of its face ABC, then the point which divides \(GG_1\) in the ratio 1:2 is

  • (A) \(\left( \frac{10}{3}, \frac{20}{3}, \frac{10}{3} \right)\)
  • (B) \(\left( \frac{20}{9}, \frac{10}{9}, \frac{10}{9} \right)\)
  • (C) \(\left( \frac{10}{9}, \frac{20}{9}, \frac{10}{9} \right)\)
  • (D) \(\left( \frac{20}{3}, \frac{10}{3}, \frac{10}{3} \right)\)

Question 59:

If L is a line common to the planes \(3x + 4y + 7z = 1\), \(x - y + z = 5\) then the direction ratios of the line L are

  • (A) \((16, 0, -1)\)
  • (B) \((11, 4, -7)\)
  • (C) \((2, 5, 1)\)
  • (D) \((4, -7, 11)\)

Question 60:

If the points \((1, 1, \lambda)\) and \((-3, 0, 1)\) are equidistant from the plane \(3x + 4y - 12z + 13 = 0\), then the values of \(\lambda\) are

  • (A) \(-1, \frac{7}{3}\)
  • (B) \(1, \frac{-7}{3}\)
  • (C) \(-1, \frac{-7}{3}\)
  • (D) \(1, \frac{7}{3}\)

Question 61:

If \(f(x) = \frac{x(a^x - 1)}{1 - \cos x}\) and \(g(x) = \frac{x(1 - a^x)}{a^x \left(\sqrt{1 - x^2} - \sqrt{1 + x^2}\right)}\), then \(\lim_{x \to 0} (f(x) - g(x)) =\)

  • (A) \(3\log a\)
  • (B) \(e^a\)
  • (C) \(2\log a\)
  • (D) \(\log a\)

Question 62:

If \(f(x) = \begin{cases} \frac{a\sin x - bx + cx^2 + x^3}{2\log(1+x) - 2x^3 + x^4} & , x \neq 0
0 & , x = 0 \end{cases}\) is continuous at \(x = 0\), then

  • (A) \(a = 2b\)
  • (B) \(a = b\)
  • (C) \(a = b = c\)
  • (D) \(b = c\)

Question 63:

If the function \(g(x) = \begin{cases} K\sqrt{x+1} & , 0 \le x \le 3
mx + 2 & , 3 < x \le 5 \end{cases}\) is differentiable, then \(K + m =\)

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 0

Question 64:

Consider the following statements

Assertion (A): For \(x \in \mathbb{R} - \{1\}\), \(\frac{d}{dx}\left(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right)\right) = \frac{d}{dx}(\tan^{-1}x)\)

Reason (R): For \(x < 1\), \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right) = \frac{\pi}{4} + \tan^{-1}x\),

for \(x > 1\), \(\tan^{-1}\left(\frac{1+x}{1-x}\right) = -\frac{3\pi}{4} + \tan^{-1}x\)

The correct answer is

  • (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
  • (B) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
  • (C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
  • (D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Question 65:

If \(\frac{d}{dx}\left\{ \frac{x-1}{x-\sqrt{x}} e^{2x+1} \right\} = \frac{x-1}{x-\sqrt{x}} e^{2x+1} f(x)\), then \(f(4) =\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 1
  • (C) \(\frac{35}{24}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{47}{24}\)

Question 66:

If \(y = (\sin^{-1}x)^2\), then \((1-x^2)\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - x\frac{dy}{dx} =\)

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{2}\)
  • (D) 4

Question 67:

The radius of a cone of height 9 units is changed from 2 units to 2.12 units. The exact change and approximate change in the volume of the cone are respectively

  • (A) \((1.4437)\pi, (1.44)\pi\)
  • (B) \((1.4832)\pi, (1.479)\pi\)
  • (C) \((1.4842)\pi, (1.48)\pi\)
  • (D) \((1.4832)\pi, (1.44)\pi\)

Question 68:

The local maximum value \(l\) and local minimum value \(m\) of \(f(x) = \frac{x^2+2x+2}{x+1}\) in \(\mathbb{R} - \{-1\}\) exist at \(\alpha, \beta\) respectively, then \(\frac{l+m}{\alpha+\beta} =\)

  • (A) 0
  • (B) -4
  • (C) -2
  • (D) 2

Question 69:

\(P(5,2)\) is a point on the curve \(y=f(x)\) and \(\frac{7}{2}\) is the slope of the tangent to the curve at P. The area of the triangle formed by the tangent and the normal to the curve at P with x-axis is

  • (A) 35
  • (B) \(\frac{35}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{53}{7}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{53}{14}\)

Question 70:

If a particle is moving in a straight line so that after \(t\) seconds its distance \(S\) (in cms) from a fixed point on the line is given by \(S = f(t) = t^3 - 5t^2 + 8t\) then the acceleration of the particle at \(t=5\) sec is (in cm/sec\(^2\))

  • (A) 10
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 20
  • (D) 40

Question 71:

If \(f:[a,b] \to [c,d]\) is a continuous and strictly increasing function, then \(\frac{d-c}{b-a}\) is

  • (A) Value of the function at a point \(t \in (a,b)\)
  • (B) Value of the function at \(t \in (a,b)\) such that \(f'(t)=0\)
  • (C) Slope of the tangent drawn to the curve \(y=f(t)\) at a point \(t \in (c,d)\)
  • (D) Slope of the tangent drawn to the curve \(y=f(t)\) at a point \(t \in (a,b)\)

Question 72:

\(\int \left( \frac{1}{x^2} + \frac{\sin^3 x + \cos^3 x}{\sin^2 x \cos^2 x} \right) dx =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{(\sin x - \cos x)x - \sin x \cos x}{x \sin x \cos x} + c\)
  • (B) \(\sec x - \csc x + c\)
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{x} \frac{\sin x - \cos x}{\sin^2 x \cos^2 x} + c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{(\sin x - \cos x)x - \sin x + \cos x}{x(\sin x + \cos x)} + c\)

Question 73:

If \(I_n = \int \frac{1}{(x^2+1)^n} dx\), then \(2n I_{n+1} - (2n-1) I_n =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{(x^2+1)^n}{x} + c\)
  • (B) \(\frac{x}{(x^2+1)^n} + c\)
  • (C) \(x(x^2+1)^{n-1} + c\)
  • (D) \(\frac{x}{(x^2+1)^{n-1}} + c\)

Question 74:

\(\int \frac{x^3}{x^4 + 3x^2 + 2} dx =\)

  • (A) \(\log \left( \frac{x^2+2}{\sqrt{x^2+1}} \right) + c\)
  • (B) \(\log(x^2+2) - 2\log(x^2+1) + c\)
  • (C) \(\log \left( \frac{(x^2+2)x}{\sqrt{x^2+1}} \right) + c\)
  • (D) \(\log \left( \frac{x^2+1}{\sqrt{x^2+2}} \right) + c\)

Question 75:

If \(\int \frac{dx}{(x^2+9)\sqrt{x^2+16}} = \frac{1}{3\sqrt{7}} \tan^{-1} \left( K \frac{x}{\sqrt{16+x^2}} \right) + c\), then \(K =\)

  • (A) \(\frac{\sqrt{7}}{3}\)
  • (B) \(3\sqrt{7}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{3}{\sqrt{7}}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{3}{7}\)

Question 76:

\(\lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{1}{n^2} \left[ e^{1/n} + 2e^{2/n} + 3e^{3/n} + \dots + 2n e^{2n/n} \right] =\)

  • (A) \(e^2 - 1\)
  • (B) \(e^2 + 1\)
  • (C) \(2e^2 - 2\)
  • (D) \(2e^2 + 1\)

Question 77:

Let m, n, p, q be four positive integers. If \(\int_0^{2\pi} \sin^m x \cos^n x dx = 4 \int_0^{\pi/2} \sin^m x \cos^n x dx\), \(\int_0^{2\pi} \sin^p x \cos^q x dx = 0\), \(a = m+n+p\) and \(b = m+n+q\), then

  • (A) a is even number and b is odd number
  • (B) a is odd number and b is even number
  • (C) Both a and b are even numbers
  • (D) Both a and b are odd numbers

Question 78:

The area of the region bounded by the curves \(y=x^3\), \(y=x^2\) and the lines \(x=0\) and \(x=2\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{4}{3}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{3}{2}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{3}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5}{3}\)

Question 79:

The substitution required to reduce the differential equation \(t^2 dx + (x^2 - tx + t^2) dt = 0\) to a differential equation which can be solved by variables separable method is

  • (A) \(t = Vx\)
  • (B) \(ax + bt = Z\)
  • (C) \(V = tx^2\)
  • (D) \(x = tV^2\)

Question 80:

The equation which represents the system of parabolas whose axis is parallel to y-axis satisfies the differential equation

  • (A) \(\frac{d^3y}{dx^3} = 0\)
  • (B) \(\frac{d^3y}{dx^3} + \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} = x+y\)
  • (C) \(\frac{d^2y}{dx^2} + xy = 4ax\)
  • (D) \(\frac{dy}{dx} + xy = x^2\)

Question 81:

Bose-Einstein statistics is applicable to particles with

  • (A) Even integral spin particles only
  • (B) Integral spin particles
  • (C) Half odd integral spin particles
  • (D) Odd integral spin particles only

Question 82:

If L and C are inductance and capacitance respectively, then the dimensional formula of \((LC)^{-\frac{1}{2}}\) is

  • (A) \([M^0 L^0 T^{-1}]\)
  • (B) \([M^1 L^1 T^{-1}]\)
  • (C) \([M^0 L^1 T^1]\)
  • (D) \([M^0 L^0 T^{-2}]\)

Question 83:

The ratio of times taken by a freely falling body to travel first 5m, second 5m, third 5m distances is

  • (A) \(1 : \sqrt{2} : \sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(1 : \sqrt{2}-1 : \sqrt{3}-2\)
  • (C) \(1 : \sqrt{3} : \sqrt{5}\)
  • (D) \(1 : \sqrt{2}-1 : \sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}\)

Question 84:

Two bodies are projected from the same point with the same initial velocity 'u' making angles '\(\theta\)' and (\(90^\circ-\theta\)) with the horizontal in opposite directions. The horizontal distance between their positions when the bodies are at their maximum heights is

  • (A) \(\frac{u^2}{2g}(\sin^2 \theta - \cos^2 \theta)\)
  • (B) \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2\theta}{2g}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{u^2}{g}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{u^2 \sin 2(90^\circ-\theta)}{g}\)

Question 85:

If the system of blocks shown in the figure is released from rest, the ratio of the tensions \(T_1\) and \(T_2\) is (Neglect the mass of the string shown in the figure)


  • (A) \(1:1\)
  • (B) \(1:2\)
  • (C) \(1:3\)
  • (D) \(3:4\)

Question 86:

If the component of the vector \(\vec{A}\) along the vector \(\vec{B}\) is twice the component of \(\vec{B}\) along \(\vec{A}\), then the ratio of magnitudes of vectors \(\vec{A}\) and \(\vec{B}\) is

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(3:2\)
  • (C) \(2:1\)
  • (D) \(3:1\)

Question 87:

A body projected vertically up with an initial speed of \(10 ms^{-1}\) reaches the point of projection after sometime with a speed of \(8 ms^{-1}\). The maximum height reached by the body is (Acceleration due to gravity \(= 10 ms^{-2}\))

  • (A) \(5 m\)
  • (B) \(3.2 m\)
  • (C) \(4.1 m\)
  • (D) \(4.5 m\)

Question 88:

Due to global warming, if the ice in the polar region melts and some of this water flows to the equatorial region, then

  • (A) Angular momentum of the earth increases and duration of day increases
  • (B) Angular momentum of the earth decreases and duration of day decreases
  • (C) Angular momentum of the earth is constant and duration of day decreases
  • (D) Angular momentum of the earth is constant and duration of day increases

Question 89:

If the moment of inertia of a thin circular ring about an axis passing through its edge and perpendicular to its plane is I, then the moment of inertia of the ring about its diameter is

  • (A) \(I/4\)
  • (B) \(4I\)
  • (C) \(I/2\)
  • (D) \(2I\)

Question 90:

A particle is executing simple harmonic motion. If the force acting on the particle at a position is 86.6% of the maximum force on it, then the ratio of its velocity at that point and its maximum velocity is

  • (A) \(1:\sqrt{3}\)
  • (B) \(1:2\)
  • (C) \(\sqrt{3}:2\)
  • (D) \(1:3\)

Question 91:

The ratio of the time periods of a simple pendulum at heights \(2R_E\) and \(3R_E\) from the surface of the earth is (\(R_E\) is radius of the earth)

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(1:3\)
  • (C) \(3:4\)
  • (D) \(2:3\)

Question 92:

Two wires A and B made of same material and areas of cross-section in the ratio \(1:2\) are stretched by same force. If the masses of the wires A and B are in the ratio \(2:3\), then the ratio of the elongations of the wires A and B is

  • (A) \(1:2\)
  • (B) \(8:3\)
  • (C) \(1:3\)
  • (D) \(4:3\)

Question 93:

Water is filled in a tank up to a height of 20 cm from the bottom of the tank. Water flows through a hole of area \(1 mm^2\) at its bottom. The mass of the water coming out from the hole in a time of 0.6 s is
(Density of water \(= 1000 kg m^{-3}\) and acceleration due to gravity \(= 10 ms^{-2}\))

  • (A) \(1.8 g\)
  • (B) \(1.2 g\)
  • (C) \(0.6 g\)
  • (D) \(2.4 g\)

Question 94:

For which of the following Reynold's number, a flow is streamlined?

  • (A) 900
  • (B) 2100
  • (C) 2900
  • (D) 4000

Question 95:

A body cools from a temperature of \(60\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(50\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) in 10 minutes and \(50\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(40\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) in 15 minutes. The time taken in minutes for the body to cool from \(40\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) to \(30\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\) is

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 20
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 40

Question 96:

When the temperature of a gas in a closed vessel is increased by \(2.4\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\), its pressure increases by \(0.5%\). The initial temperature of the gas is

  • (A) \(120\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (B) \(240\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (C) \(480\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (D) \(207\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)

Question 97:

A gas is suddenly compressed such that its absolute temperature is doubled. If the ratio of the specific heat capacities of the gas is 1.5, then the percentage decrease in the volume of the gas is

  • (A) 30
  • (B) 50
  • (C) 25
  • (D) 75

Question 98:

If the heat required to increase the rms speed of 4 moles of a diatomic gas from \(v\) to \(\sqrt{3}v\) is \(83.1\,\mathrm{kJ}\), then the initial temperature of the gas is (Universal gas constant \(= 8.31\,\mathrm{J\,mol^{-1}\,K^{-1}}\))

  • (A) \(377\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (B) \(327\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (C) \(227\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)
  • (D) \(277\,^\circ\mathrm{C}\)

Question 99:

If the lengths of the open and closed pipes are in the ratio of \(2:3\), then the ratio of the frequencies of the third harmonic of the open pipe and the fifth harmonic of the closed pipe is

  • (A) \(3:5\)
  • (B) \(9:5\)
  • (C) \(2:3\)
  • (D) \(4:9\)

Question 100:

The equation of a transverse wave propagating on a stretched string is given by \(y = 3\sin(4x + 200t)\), where \(x\) and \(y\) are in metre and the time \(t\) is in second. If the tension applied to the string is \(500\,\mathrm{N}\), the linear density of the string is

  • (A) \(0.25\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}}\)
  • (B) \(0.4\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}}\)
  • (C) \(0.2\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}}\)
  • (D) \(0.1\,\mathrm{kg\,m^{-1}}\)

Question 101:

A compound microscope has an objective of focal length \(1.25\,\mathrm{cm}\) and an eyepiece of focal length \(5\,\mathrm{cm}\) separated by a distance of \(7.5\,\mathrm{cm}\). The total magnification produced by the microscope when the final image forms at infinity is

  • (A) 6.25
  • (B) 30
  • (C) 120
  • (D) 72.5

Question 102:

The property of light that explains the formation of coloured images due to thick lenses is

  • (A) Refraction
  • (B) Dispersion
  • (C) Reflection
  • (D) Total internal reflection

Question 103:

For an aperture of \(5 \times 10^{-3}\,\mathrm{m}\) and a monochromatic light of wavelength \(\lambda\), the distance for which ray optics becomes a good approximation is \(50\,\mathrm{m}\), then \(\lambda =\)

  • (A) \(5000\,\mathring{A}\)
  • (B) \(6000\,\mathring{A}\)
  • (C) \(5400\,\mathring{A}\)
  • (D) \(6500\,\mathring{A}\)

Question 104:

An electron and a positron enter a uniform electric field E perpendicular to it with equal speeds at the same time. The distance of separation between them in the direction of the field after a time 't' is
(\(\frac{e}{m}\) is specific charge of electron)

  • (A) \(\frac{2Eet^2}{m}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{Eet^2}{m}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{Eet^2}{2m}\)
  • (D) Zero

Question 105:

A charge q is placed at the centre 'O' of a circle of radius R and two other charges q and q are placed at the ends of the diameter AB of the circle. The work done to move the charge at point B along the circumference of the circle to a point C as shown in the figure is



  • (A) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{q^2}{R} (\sqrt{2})\)
  • (B) Zero
  • (C) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{q^2}{R} \left(\frac{\sqrt{2}-1}{2}\right)\)
  • (D) \(\frac{1}{4\pi\epsilon_0} \frac{q^2}{R} \left(\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\right)\)

Question 106:

In a potentiometer experiment, a wire of length 10 m and resistance \(5\,\Omega\) is connected to a cell of emf 2.2 V. If the potential difference between two points separated by a distance of 660 cm on potentiometer wire is 1.1 V, then the internal resistance of the cell is

  • (A) \(1.6\,\Omega\)
  • (B) \(1.4\,\Omega\)
  • (C) \(1.2\,\Omega\)
  • (D) \(1\,\Omega\)

Question 107:

When the right gap of a meter bridge consists of two equal resistors in series, the balancing point is at 50 cm. When one of the resistors in the right gap is removed and is connected in parallel to the resistor in the left gap, the balancing point is at

  • (A) 60 cm
  • (B) 33.3 cm
  • (C) 25 cm
  • (D) 40 cm

Question 108:

Two identical wires, carrying equal currents are bent into circular coils A and B with 2 and 3 turns respectively. The ratio of the magnetic fields at the centres of the coils A and B is

  • (A) 4:9
  • (B) 2:3
  • (C) 9:4
  • (D) 3:2

Question 109:

A current of 4 A is passed through a square loop of side 5 cm made of a uniform manganin wire as shown in the figure. The magnetic field at the centre of the loop is



  • (A) \(\frac{24\sqrt{2}}{5} \times 10^{-5}\) T
  • (B) \(\frac{3\sqrt{2}}{5} \times 10^{-5}\) T
  • (C) \(\frac{6\sqrt{2}}{5} \times 10^{-5}\) T
  • (D) Zero

Question 110:

If \(B_V\) and \(B_H\) are respectively the vertical and horizontal components of the earth's magnetic field at a place where the angle of dip is \(60^\circ\), then the total magnetic field at that place is

  • (A) \(\sqrt{5} B_H\)
  • (B) \(\sqrt{3} B_V\)
  • (C) \(\frac{2}{\sqrt{3}} B_V\)
  • (D) \(\frac{\sqrt{3}}{2} B_H\)

Question 111:

A coil of resistance \(8\,\Omega\), number of turns 250 and area \(120 cm^2\) is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 2 T such that the plane of the coil makes an angle of \(\frac{\pi}{6}\) with the direction of the magnetic field. In a time of 100 ms, the coil is rotated until its plane becomes parallel to the direction of the magnetic field. The current induced in the coil is

  • (A) 5.25 A
  • (B) 3.75 A
  • (C) 2.75 A
  • (D) 1.25 A

Question 112:

An inductor and a resistor are connected in series to an ac supply. If the potential differences across the inductor and the resistor are 180 V and 240 V respectively, then the voltage of the ac supply is

  • (A) 300 V
  • (B) 420 V
  • (C) 60 V
  • (D) 210 V

Question 113:

If electromagnetic waves of power 600 W incident on a non-reflecting surface, then the total force acting on the surface is

  • (A) \(12 \times 10^{-6}\) N
  • (B) \(9 \times 10^{-9}\) N
  • (C) \(6 \times 10^{-6}\) N
  • (D) \(2 \times 10^{-6}\) N

Question 114:

When a photosensitive material is illuminated by photons of energy 3.1 eV, the stopping potential of the photoelectrons is 1.7 V. When the same photosensitive material is illuminated by photons of energy 2.5 eV, the stopping potential of the photoelectrons is

  • (A) 1.8 V
  • (B) 1.4 V
  • (C) 1.1 V
  • (D) 1.3 V

Question 115:

The ratio of the kinetic energies of the electrons in the third and fourth excited states of hydrogen atom is

  • (A) 4:3
  • (B) 16:9
  • (C) 25:16
  • (D) 5:4

Question 116:

In \(\beta^-\) decay, a neutron transforms into a proton within the nucleus according to the equation:
neutron \(\to\) proton + \(\beta^-\) + \(x\)
In this equation the particle represented by 'x' is

  • (A) Neutrino
  • (B) Anti neutrino
  • (C) Positron
  • (D) Meson

Question 117:

Two radioactive substances A and B have same number of initial nuclei. If the half-lives of A and B are 1.5 days and 4.5 days respectively, then the ratio of the number of nuclei remaining in A and B after 9 days is

  • (A) 1:16
  • (B) 1:1
  • (C) 1:4
  • (D) 1:8

Question 118:

\(10^{10}\) electrons enter the emitter of a junction transistor in a time of \(0.4\ \mus\). If \(5%\) of the electrons are lost in the base, then the collector current is

  • (A) \(3.0\ mA\)
  • (B) \(3.2\ mA\)
  • (C) \(3.6\ mA\)
  • (D) \(3.8\ mA\)

Question 119:

An electron in n-region of a p-n junction moves towards the junction with a speed of \(5 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\). If the barrier potential of the junction is \(0.45\ V\), then the speed with which the electron enters the p-region after penetration through the barrier is
(Charge of the electron \(= 1.6 \times 10^{-19}\ C\) and mass of the electron \(= 9 \times 10^{-31}\ kg\))

  • (A) \(3 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\)
  • (B) \(5 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\)
  • (C) \(4 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\)
  • (D) \(6 \times 10^5\ ms^{-1}\)

Question 120:

Coaxial cable, a widely used wire medium offers an approximate frequency bandwidth of

  • (A) \(750\ GHz\)
  • (B) \(750\ Hz\)
  • (C) \(750\ MHz\)
  • (D) \(750\ kHz\)

Question 121:

The electron in hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher orbits to an orbit of radius 476.1 pm. This transition corresponds to which of the following series?

  • (A) Lyman
  • (B) Paschen
  • (C) Balmer
  • (D) Pfund

Question 122:

Identify the incorrect statement from the following?

  • (A) \(m_l\) designates the orientation of the orbital
  • (B) The probability density of electron is expressed by \(|\psi|^2\)
  • (C) The total information about electron in atom is stored in its \(\psi\)
  • (D) Total number of orbitals in a sub level is equal to \((2l+1)\)

Question 123:

Atomic numbers of three elements \(E_1, E_2\) and \(E_3\) of periodic table are \(Z_1, 50\) and \(Z_2\) respectively. From the position of the elements shown in figure, the value of \((Z_2 - Z_1)\) is



  • (A) 52
  • (B) 46
  • (C) 64
  • (D) 34

Question 124:

Electron gain enthalpy values (\(\Delta_{eg}H\)) (in kJ mol\(^{-1}\)) of elements X, Y and Z are \(-349, -200\) and \(-295\) respectively. X, Y and Z are respectively

  • (A) Cl, I, S
  • (B) Cl, S, I
  • (C) S, Se, Te
  • (D) Na, K, Rb

Question 125:

Observe the following list of molecules. Number of polar and non polar molecules are respectively
\(NH_3, BF_3, NF_3, H_2S, CO_2, CH_4, CHCl_3, H_2O\)

  • (A) 4, 4
  • (B) 3, 5
  • (C) 5, 3
  • (D) 2, 6

Question 126:

The molecule `X' has see-saw shape with central atom in \(sp^3d\) hybridization. What is `X'?

  • (A) \(ClF_3\)
  • (B) \(XeF_4\)
  • (C) \(SF_4\)
  • (D) \(BrF_5\)

Question 127:

Two vessels are filled with ideal gases A and B and are connected through a pipe of zero volume as shown in figure. The stop cock is opened and the gases are allowed to mix homogeneously and the temperature is kept constant. The partial pressures of A and B respectively (in atm) are


  • (A) 8.0, 5
  • (B) 9.6, 4
  • (C) 6.4, 4
  • (D) 4.8, 2

Question 128:

If the number of moles of \(Fe^{2+}\) ions oxidized by one mole of acidified \(MnO_4^-\) is \(x\), the number of moles of \(Fe^{2+}\) ions oxidized by one mole of acidified \(Cr_2O_7^{2-}\) is

  • (A) \(\frac{5x}{8}\)
  • (B) \(\frac{6x}{5}\)
  • (C) \(\frac{8x}{5}\)
  • (D) \(\frac{5x}{6}\)

Question 129:

One mole of an ideal gas at 300 K and 20 atm expands to 2 atm under isothermal and reversible conditions. The work done by the gas is \(-x\ kJ mol^{-1}\). The value of \(x\) is
\((R=8.3\ J K^{-1}\ mol^{-1})\)

  • (A) 5.73
  • (B) 7.37
  • (C) 3.75
  • (D) 4.57

Question 130:

At 1000 K, the equilibrium constant for the reaction
\(CO_2(g) + H_2(g) \rightleftharpoons CO(g) + H_2O(g)\) is 0.53. In a one litre vessel, at equilibrium the mixture contains 0.25 mole of CO, 0.5 mole of \(CO_2\), 0.6 mole of \(H_2\) and \(x\) moles of \(H_2O\). The value of \(x\) is

  • (A) 0.563
  • (B) 0.363
  • (C) 0.636
  • (D) 0.736

Question 131:

Match the following

\begin{tabular{|l|l|l|l|
\hline
\multicolumn{2{|c|{List - 1 (Reactions) & \multicolumn{2{c|{List - 2 (Methods)

\hline
A & \(Mg(HCO_3)_2 \rightarrow Mg(OH)_2 \downarrow + 2CO_2 \uparrow\) & I & Clark's method

\hline
B & \(M^{2+} + Na_6P_6O_{18}^{2-} \rightarrow [Na_2MP_6O_{18}]^{2-} + 2Na^+\) & II & Ion exchange method

\hline
C & \(Ca(HCO_3)_2 + Ca(OH)_2 \rightarrow 2CaCO_3 + 2H_2O\) & III & Boiling

\hline
D & \(2NaZ + Ca^{2+}(aq) \rightarrow 2Na^+ + CaZ\) \((Z = Zeolite)\) & IV & Calgon's method

\hline
\end{tabular

The correct answer is

  • (A) A -- III, B -- IV, C -- I, D -- II
  • (B) A -- III, B -- IV, C -- II, D -- I
  • (C) A -- IV, B -- II, C -- I, D -- III
  • (D) A -- II, B -- IV, C -- I, D -- III
Correct Answer: (A) A -- III, B -- IV, C -- I, D -- II
View Solution



Step 1: Understanding the Concept:
The question asks to match reactions involved in removing hardness of water with the specific methods used.

Step 2: Analyzing Each Reaction:

Reaction A: \(Mg(HCO_3)_2 \xrightarrow{\Delta} Mg(OH)_2 \downarrow + 2CO_2 \uparrow\).
This reaction represents the removal of temporary hardness caused by magnesium bicarbonate by Boiling. Note that unlike calcium bicarbonate which forms carbonate, magnesium bicarbonate precipitates as hydroxide because \(Mg(OH)_2\) is less soluble than \(MgCO_3\). (Matches with III).

Reaction B: \(M^{2+} + Na_6P_6O_{18}^{2-} \rightarrow [Na_2MP_6O_{18}]^{2-} + 2Na^+\).
The compound \(Na_6P_6O_{18}\) is commercially known as Calgon (Sodium hexametaphosphate). It complexes with metal ions like \(Ca^{2+}\) and \(Mg^{2+}\) to keep them in solution but inactive. This is Calgon's method. (Matches with IV).

Reaction C: \(Ca(HCO_3)_2 + Ca(OH)_2 \rightarrow 2CaCO_3 \downarrow + 2H_2O\).
This involves adding calculated amounts of lime (\(Ca(OH)_2\)) to precipitate out calcium carbonate. This is known as Clark's method. (Matches with I).

Reaction D: \(2NaZ + Ca^{2+} \rightarrow CaZ_2 + 2Na^+\).
Here, Z represents Zeolite (hydrated sodium aluminium silicate). The exchange of sodium ions for calcium/magnesium ions on the zeolite surface is characteristic of the Ion exchange method (specifically Permutit/Zeolite process). (Matches with II).


Step 3: Matching:
A \(\rightarrow\) III, B \(\rightarrow\) IV, C \(\rightarrow\) I, D \(\rightarrow\) II.

Final Answer: Option (A). Quick Tip: Remember the unique precipitation product for Magnesium temporary hardness on boiling: it forms \(Mg(OH)_2\), not \(MgCO_3\), due to solubility product differences (\(K_{sp}\) of \(Mg(OH)_2 < MgCO_3\)).


Question 132:

Observe the following statements

Statement - I: Both LiF and CsI have low solubility in water

Statement - II: Low solubility of LiF in water is due to smaller hydration enthalpy of ions and that of CsI is due to its high lattice enthalpy

The correct answer is

  • (A) Both statements I and II are correct
  • (B) Statement I is correct, but statement II is not correct
  • (C) Statement I is not correct, but statement II is correct
  • (D) Both statements I and II are not correct

Question 133:

In which of the following the s-block elements are arranged in the correct order of their melting points?

  • (A) \(Mg > Be > Na > Li\)
  • (B) \(Li > Be > Mg > Na\)
  • (C) \(Be > Mg > Li > Na\)
  • (D) \(Li > Mg > Na > Be\)

Question 134:

The correct statements about the compounds of boron are

I. In borax bead test, the colour of cobalt metaborate is blue

II. Diborane is prepared by the oxidation of sodium borohydride with iodine

III. In diborane oxidation state of hydrogen is +1

IV. Boric acid is a tribasic acid

  • (A) I \& II
  • (B) III \& IV
  • (C) I \& III
  • (D) II \& IV

Question 135:

Dehydration of an organic acid X with concentrated \(H_2SO_4\) at 373K gives \(H_2O\) and gas Y. The hybridisation of the carbon in Y and nature of Y are respectively

  • (A) \(sp^2\), Neutral
  • (B) \(sp\), Neutral
  • (C) \(sp^2\), acidic
  • (D) \(sp\), acidic

Question 136:

Identify the correct statements from the following

I. Photochemical smog has high concentration of oxidising agents

II. \(NO_2\) is present in classical smog

III. Higher concentration of \(SO_2\) in air can cause stiffness of flower buds

IV. pH of rain water is approximately 7.5

  • (A) I \& III
  • (B) I \& II
  • (C) III \& IV
  • (D) II \& III

Question 137:

Consider the given sequence of reactions.
\(C_2H_6 + \frac{3}{2}O_2 \xrightarrow[\Delta]{(CH_3COO)_2Mn} X \xrightarrow{Na} Y\)

Electrolysis of aqueous solution of Y gives gases P and Q at anode. P and Q are respectively.

  • (A) \(C_2H_6, CO_2\)
  • (B) \(CH_4, CO_2\)
  • (C) \(C_2H_6, H_2\)
  • (D) \(CH_4, CO\)

Question 138:

When sodium fusion extract of an organic compound is boiled with iron (II) sulphate solution followed by addition of concentrated \(H_2SO_4\), gives Prussian blue colour. This confirms the presence of the element

  • (A) Sulphur
  • (B) Chlorine
  • (C) Phosphorus
  • (D) Nitrogen

Question 139:

Which of the following is an example of electrophilic substitution reaction?

  • (A) \(CH_3CHO + HCN \rightarrow CH_3CH(OH)CN\)
  • (B) \((CH_3)_3CX + H_2O \rightarrow (CH_3)_3C-OH + HX\)
  • (C) \(C_6H_6 + CH_3COCl \xrightarrow{AlCl_3} C_6H_5(COCH_3) + HCl\)
  • (D) \(Br CH_2CH_2Br + Zn \xrightarrow{alcohol, \Delta} CH_2=CH_2 + ZnBr_2\)

Question 140:

An alkene X on ozonolysis gives a mixture of simplest ketone (Y) and 3-Pentanone. The IUPAC name of the alkene X is

  • (A) 2,3-Dimethylbut-2-ene
  • (B) 3-Ethyl-4-methylpent-3-ene
  • (C) 3-Ethyl-2-methylpent-2-ene
  • (D) 2-Methyl-3-ethylpent-2-ene

Question 141:

A solid contains elements A and B. Anions of B form ccp lattice. Cations of A occupy 50% of octahedral voids and 50% of tetrahedral voids. What is the molecular formula of the solid?

  • (A) \(AB_3\)
  • (B) \(A_3B_2\)
  • (C) \(A_2B_3\)
  • (D) \(AB\)

Question 142:

The osmotic pressure (in atm) of an aqueous solution containing 0.01 mol of NaCl (degree of dissociation 0.94) and 0.03 mol of glucose in 500 mL at \(27\,^\circC\) is \((R = 0.082\,L atm K^{-1}mol^{-1})\)

  • (A) 2.43
  • (B) 4.23
  • (C) 3.24
  • (D) 3.42

Question 143:

Electrolysis of aqueous copper (II) sulphate between Pt electrodes gives 'X' at anode and 'Y' at cathode. X and Y are respectively

  • (A) \(Cu, O_2\)
  • (B) \(O_2, Cu\)
  • (C) \(SO_2, H_2\)
  • (D) \(O_2, H_2\)

Question 144:

Consider a general first order reaction \(A(g) \rightarrow B(g) + C(g)\). If the initial pressure is 200 mm and after 20 minutes it is 250 mm, then the half-life period of the reaction (in minutes) is
(\(\log 2 = 0.30, \log 3 = 0.48, \log 4 = 0.60\))

  • (A) 40.2
  • (B) 50.2
  • (C) 20.5
  • (D) 60.5

Question 145:

The most effective coagulating agent for antimony sulphide sol is

  • (A) \(Na_2SO_4\)
  • (B) \(CaCl_2\)
  • (C) \(NH_4Cl\)
  • (D) \(Al_2(SO_4)_3\)

Question 146:

Metal X obtained from sphalerite ore can be purified by which of the following methods?

  • (A) Distillation
  • (B) Poling
  • (C) Zone refining
  • (D) Vapour phase refining

Question 147:

An oxoacid of phosphorus 'X' reduces silver nitrate solution to metallic silver and gets oxidised to another compound Y. X and Y respectively are

  • (A) \(HPO_3, H_3PO_4\)
  • (B) \(H_3PO_2, H_3PO_4\)
  • (C) \(H_3PO_3, H_3PO_2\)
  • (D) \(H_3PO_2, HNO_3\)

Question 148:

Zinc on reaction with concentrated nitric acid gives an oxide of nitrogen (A). Zinc with dilute nitric acid gives another oxide of nitrogen (B). Oxidation numbers of nitrogen in (A) \& (B) are respectively

  • (A) +4, +1
  • (B) +4, +2
  • (C) +2, +4
  • (D) +1, +4


Question 149:

Identify the reaction related to Deacon's process

  • (A) \(2H_2O + 2Cl_2 \xrightarrow{sunlight} 4HCl + O_2\)
  • (B) \(4HCl + O_2 \xrightarrow[723K]{CuCl_2} 2Cl_2 + 2H_2O\)
  • (C) \(2NaCl + H_2SO_4 \xrightarrow{823K} Na_2SO_4 + 2HCl\)
  • (D) \(Na_2S_2O_3 + Cl_2 + H_2O \rightarrow Na_2SO_4 + 2HCl + S\)

Question 150:

Identify the correct statements about lanthanoids

I. \(Ce^{4+}\) and \(Tb^{4+}\) act as oxidising agents

II. \(Eu^{2+}\) and \(Yb^{2+}\) act as oxidising agents

III. Mischmetal is an alloy of 95% iron and 5% lanthanoid metal

IV. \(La^{3+}\) and \(Ce^{4+}\) are diamagnetic in nature

  • (A) I \& II only
  • (B) I \& IV only
  • (C) II, III \& IV only
  • (D) I, II \& IV only

Question 151:

When 100 mL of 0.2 M solution of \(CoCl_3 \cdot xNH_3\) is treated with excess of \(AgNO_3\) solution, \(3.6 \times 10^{22}\) ions are precipitated. The value of \(x\) is \((N = 6 \times 10^{23} mol^{-1})\)

  • (A) 5
  • (B) 6
  • (C) 4
  • (D) 3

Question 152:

Ethylene on reaction with cold, dilute alkaline \(KMnO_4\) at 273 K gives a compound 'P'. This on polymerisation with which of the following gives dacron?

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 153:

A carbohydrate (A), when treated with dilute HCl in alcoholic solution gives two isomers (B) and (C). B on reaction with bromine water gives a monocarboxylic acid 'Z' and 'C' is a ketohexose. What is A?

  • (A) Starch
  • (B) Maltose
  • (C) Sucrose
  • (D) Lactose

Question 154:

The incorrect statement about chloramphenicol is

  • (A) It is a broad spectrum antibiotic
  • (B) It is a bacteriostatic antibiotic
  • (C) It is a bactericidal antibiotic
  • (D) It is used to cure pneumonia

Question 155:

The number of chlorine (Cl) atoms in the structure of DDT molecule is

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 5

Question 156:

The major product in Reimer-Tiemann reaction is X. The reactants are Y and Z. X, Y and Z are respectively.

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 157:

Toluene \(\xrightarrow{(1) CrO_2Cl_2 / CS_2} \xrightarrow{(2) H_3O^+} X \xrightarrow[Conc. NaOH]{50%} Y + Z\)

The correct statements about X, Y and Z are

A. Y is a secondary alcohol

B. Y is the reduction product of X

C. Z on heating with soda lime gives benzene

D. Y does not give \(H_2\) gas with Na metal

  • (A) B \& C only
  • (B) A \& B only
  • (C) A \& D only
  • (D) B \& D only

Question 158:

Identify the product 'P' in the given reaction sequence


  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 159:

The product 'C' in the given reaction sequence is


  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

Question 160:

The amine / salt of amine which gives positive test with a mixture of chloroform and alcoholic KOH solution is

  • (A)
  • (B)
  • (C)
  • (D)

TS EAMCET 2025 Previous Year Exam Analysis

As per the previous years' TS EAMCET Exam Analysis, it is expected that the difficulty level of TS EAMCET 2025 will be moderate in the difficulty level. Below is a year-wise comparison of the TS EAMCET Engineering exams from 2024 to 2022, including subject-wise difficulty, key topics, and student reactions:

TS EAMCET Engineering Exam Analysis (2024–2022)

Year Overall Level Maths Difficulty Physics Focus Chemistry Nature
2024 Moderate Lengthy, Moderate Conceptual + Numerical 65% NCERT-based
2023 Moderate to Tough Application-based 60% Numerical 70% Direct from NCERT
2022 Easy to Moderate Formula-based 55% Theory-based 75% Memory-based

TS EAMCET 2025 Topic-Wise Weightage

TS EAMCET 2025 is expected to follow a question distribution pattern similar to the previous years. Maths has the most weightage at 80 questions, with Physics and Chemistry at 40 each.

Given below is the probable topic-wise weightage of every subject as per the previous year trends:

Mathematics

Topic Expected No. of Questions
Calculus 10–12
Algebra 9–11
Coordinate Geometry 7–9
Vector Algebra 5–7
Probability & Statistics 4–6
Trigonometry 3–4
Complex Numbers 2–3

Physics

Topic Expected No. of Questions
Current Electricity 4–5
Thermodynamics 4–5
Laws of Motion 3–4
Work, Energy & Power 3–4
Semiconductor Devices 3–4
Oscillations & Waves 2–3
Modern Physics 2–3

Chemistry

Topic Expected No. of Questions
Organic Chemistry 8–10
Physical Chemistry 7–9
Inorganic Chemistry 6–8
Environmental Chemistry 2–3
Surface Chemistry 2–3
Biomolecules & Polymers 2–3