KEAM 2025 Phramacy April 29 Question Paper (Available): Download Solutions with Answer Key

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Shivam Yadav

Updated 3+ months ago

KEAM 2025 Pharmacy exam in two days, on April 24, and April 29, 2025. The KEAM 2025 Pharmacy exam was held on April 29, 2025 from 10:00 AM to 11:30 PM .

The KEAM 2025 Pharmacy exam is an online CBT exam with a total of 75 questions divided between the two subjects. Physics (45 questions) and Chemistry (30 questions). As per the KEAM 2025 marking scheme, +4 marks will be given for every correct answer and 1 mark is deducted for every incorrect answer. The KEAM 2025 exam has a total of 300 marks. The candidates have 90 minutes to complete the exam.

The question paper PDF and solution PDF is available to download here .

KEAM 2025 Pharmacy April 29 Question Paper PDF Download 

KEAM 2025 Pharmacy Question Paper with Answer Key  Download Check Solution
KEAM 2025 Pharmacy April 29 Question Paper PDF Download

Question 1:

A solution is prepared by adding 4 g of a substance to 46 g of ethanol. What is the mass percentage of the solute?

  • (A) 8%
  • (B) 10%
  • (C) 4%
  • (D) 6%
  • (E) 12%
Correct Answer: (1) 8%
View Solution

Question 2:

The order of energy of orbitals in the same subshell is

  • (A) \( E_{2s}(Na) > E_{2s}(Li) > E_{2s}(K) \)
  • (B) \( E_{2s}(Li) > E_{2s}(Na) > E_{2s}(K) \)
  • (C) \( E_{2s}(K) > E_{2s}(Na) > E_{2s}(Li) \)
  • (D) \( E_{2s}(Na) > E_{2s}(K) > E_{2s}(Li) \)
  • (E) \[ E_{2s}(Na) > E_{2s}(K) > E_{2s}(Li) \]
Correct Answer: (2) \( E_{2s}(\text{Li}) > E_{2s}(\text{Na}) > E_{2s}(\text{K}) \)
View Solution

Question 3:

Which of the following is correct about the stability of half-filled and completely filled subshells?
(i) Relatively small shielding
(ii) Larger coulombic repulsion energy
(iii) Smaller exchange energy
(iv) Smaller coulombic repulsion energy
(v) Larger exchange energy

 

  • (A) (i), (ii) and (iii)
  • (B) (i), (iii) and (v)
  • (C) (i), (iv) and (v)
  • (D) (ii), (iii) and (v)
  • (E) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Correct Answer: (C) (i), (iv) and (v)
View Solution

Question 4:

The correct order of ionization enthalpy is

  • (A) C \(<\) B \(<\) O \(<\) N
  • (B) B \(<\) O \(<\) C \(<\) N
  • (C) N \(<\) C \(<\) O \(<\) B
  • (D) B \(<\) C \(<\) O \(<\) N
  • (E) C \(<\) B \(<\) O \(<\) N
Correct Answer: (D) B \(<\) C \(<\) O \(<\) N
View Solution

Question 5:

The increasing order of atomic radii is

  • (A) C \(<\) N \(<\) O \(<\) F
  • (B) F \(<\) O \(<\) C \(<\) N
  • (C) O \(<\) F \(<\) N \(<\)C
  • (D) F \(<\) N \(<\) O \(<\) C
  • (E) F \(<\) O \(<\) N \(<\) C
Correct Answer: (E) F \(<\) O \(<\) N \(<\) C
View Solution

Question 6:

Which of the following molecules has an expanded octet?

  • (A) BCl\(_3\)
  • (B) NO\(_2\)
  • (C) NO
  • (D) SF\(_6\)
  • (E) BeH\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (D) SF\(_6\)
View Solution

Question 7:

Which of the following molecules has 3 bond pairs and 2 lone pairs of electrons?

  • (A) NH\(_3\)
  • (B) SO\(_2\)
  • (C) ClF\(_3\)
  • (D) SF\(_4\)
  • (E) H\(_2\)O
Correct Answer: (C) ClF\(_3\)
View Solution

Question 8:

Which of the following is an extensive property?

  • (A) Molar volume
  • (B) Internal energy
  • (C) Temperature
  • (D) Density
  • (E) Pressure
Correct Answer: (B) Internal energy
View Solution

Question 9:

Which of the following molecules has the highest standard enthalpy change of fusion (\( \Delta_{fus}H^\circ \)) (in kJ mol\(^{-1}\))?

  • (A) H\(_2\)O
  • (B) CO
  • (C) C\(_6\)H\(_6\)
  • (D) CCl\(_4\)
  • (E) NaCl
Correct Answer: (E) NaCl
View Solution

Question 10:

At equilibrium, the concentration of \( N_2 = 5 \times 10^{-3} \, M \), \( O_2 = 2.8 \times 10^{-3} \, M \), and \( NO = 1.4 \times 10^{-3} \, M \) in a sealed vessel at 800 K. What is the value of \( K_c \) for the reaction at the same temperature?
\[ N_2(g) + O_2(g) \rightleftharpoons 2NO(g) \]

  • (A) 0.41
  • (B) 0.14
  • (C) 0.18
  • (D) 0.5
  • (E) 0.28
Correct Answer: (B) 0.14
View Solution

Question 11:

Given the reaction: \[ Cu(s) + 2Ag^+_{(aq)} \rightleftharpoons Cu^{2+}_{(aq)} + 2Ag(s) \quad (E_{cell}^\circ = 0.295 \, V, \, 2.303 \, \frac{RT}{F} = 0.059 \, V) \]
What is the value of the equilibrium constant \( K \)?

  • (A) \( 10^{20} \)
  • (B) \( 10^{15} \)
  • (C) \( 10^{10} \)
  • (D) \( 10^{-1} \)
  • (E) \( 10^{-2} \)
Correct Answer: (C) \( 10^{10} \)
View Solution

Question 12:

Which of the following compounds is used to cover the surface of a metallic object to prevent corrosion?

  • (A) Phenol
  • (B) Benzene
  • (C) Acetone
  • (D) Bisphenol
  • (E) Nitrophenol
Correct Answer: (D) Bisphenol
View Solution

Question 13:

Which of the following gases has the lowest solubility in water at 298 K?

  • (A) Argon
  • (B) Carbon dioxide
  • (C) Formaldehyde
  • (D) Methane
  • (E) Vinyl chloride
Correct Answer: (A) Argon
View Solution

Question 14:

In a reaction, \( 3A \rightarrow Products \), the concentration of \( A \) decreases from 0.6 mol L\(^{-1}\) to 0.3 mol L\(^{-1}\) in 20 minutes. What is the rate of the reaction during this interval?

  • (A) 0.05 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (B) 0.005 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (C) 0.03 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (D) 0.6 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
  • (E) 0.003 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
Correct Answer: (B) 0.005 mol L\(^{-1}\) min\(^{-1}\)
View Solution

Question 15:

The following data were obtained for the reaction:
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2N2O(g)
at different concentrations:

Experiment [NO] (mol L-1) [O2] (mol L-1) Initial Rate (mol L-1 min-1)
1 0.30 0.30 0.096
2 0.60 0.30 0.384
3 0.30 0.60 0.192
4 0.60 0.60 0.768

The rate law of this reaction is:

  • (A) Rate = k[NO][O\(_2\)]²
  • (B) Rate = k[NO][O\(_2\)]
  • (C) Rate = k[NO]²[O\(_2\)]²
  • (D) Rate = k[NO]²[O\(_2\)]
  • (E) Rate = k[NO]²[O\(_2\)]³
Correct Answer: (D) Rate = k[NO]²[O\(_2\)]
View Solution

Question 16:

Which of the following transition elements has both bcc and ccp structures at normal temperature?

  • (A) Titanium
  • (B) Vanadium
  • (C) Silver
  • (D) Chromium
  • (E) Manganese
Correct Answer: (E) Manganese
View Solution

Question 17:

The most common oxidation states of chromium are

  • (A) +2 and +7
  • (B) +2 and +3
  • (C) +1 and +6
  • (D) +3 and +6
  • (E) +2 and +4
Correct Answer: (D) +3 and +6
View Solution

Question 18:

What is the magnetic moment of a divalent ion with three unpaired electrons?

  • (A) 2.84 BM
  • (B) 5.92 BM
  • (C) 3.87 BM
  • (D) 4.90 BM
  • (E) 1.73 BM
Correct Answer: (C) 3.87 BM
View Solution

Question 19:

The bond angle of Cr-O-Cr bond in dichromate ion is

  • (A) 90°
  • (B) 126°
  • (C) 109°
  • (D) 60°
  • (E) 120°
Correct Answer: (B) 126°
View Solution

Question 20:

Which of the following transition metal oxide is used in dry battery cells?

  • (A) ZnO
  • (B) TiO
  • (C) \( V_2O_5 \)
  • (D) NiO
  • (E) \( MnO_2 \)
Correct Answer: (E) \( \text{MnO}_2 \)
View Solution

Question 21:

The first and second ionization enthalpies of lanthanoids are comparable with the element

  • (A) Chromium
  • (B) Calcium
  • (C) Germanium
  • (D) Cesium
  • (E) Cadmium
Correct Answer: (B) Calcium
View Solution

Question 22:

The percentage of Cr(III) in Ruby is

  • (A) 0.5 to 1 %
  • (B) 1 to 2 %
  • (C) 0.1 to 0.4 %
  • (D) 2 to 3 %
  • (E) 0.1 to 0.3 %
Correct Answer: (A) 0.5 to 1 %
View Solution

Question 23:

Which of the following is an outer orbital complex?

  • (A) \([Co(NH_3)_6]^{3+}\)
  • (B) \([Mn(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
  • (C) \([Co(C_2O_4)_3]^{3-}\)
  • (D) \([MnCl_6]^{3-}\)
  • (E) \([Fe(CN)_6]^{3-}\)
Correct Answer: (D) \([MnCl_6]^{3-}\)
View Solution

Question 24:

What is the colour of the complex \([Ni(en)_3]^{2+}\) in water?

  • (A) Pale blue
  • (B) Purple
  • (C) Violet
  • (D) Green
  • (E) Orange
Correct Answer: (C) Violet
View Solution

Question 25:

Hardness of water is estimated by titration with

  • (A) DMG
  • (B) Cupron
  • (C) \(\alpha\)-nitroso-\(\beta\)-naphthol
  • (D) Na\(_2\)] EDTA
  • (E) Ethylenediamine
Correct Answer: (D) Na\(_2\)] EDTA
View Solution

Question 26:

The formula of Ammonium phosphomolybdate is

  • (A) \((NH_4)_3PO_4.12MoO_3\)
  • (B) \((NH_4)_2.12MoO_4\)
  • (C) \((NH_4)_2PO_4.12MoO_3\)
  • (D) \((NH_4)_3PO_3.12MoO_3\)
  • (E) \((NH_4)_3PO_4.2MoO_3\)
Correct Answer: (A) \((NH_4)_3PO_4.12MoO_3\)
View Solution

Question 27:

On complete combustion of 0.96 g of an organic compound, 0.88 g of carbon dioxide and 0.1 g of water are produced. What is the percentage composition of carbon in the compound?

  • (A) 22%
  • (B) 18%
  • (C) 16%
  • (D) 20%
  • (E) 25%
Correct Answer: (E) 25%
View Solution

Question 28:

Which of the following sodium salts of carboxylic acid is used for the preparation of n-hexane by Kolbe's electrolytic method?

  • (A) CHCH\(_2\)] COONa
  • (B) CH\(_3\)] COONa
  • (C) HCOONa
  • (D) CH\(_3\)] CH\(_2\)] CH\(_2\)] COONa
  • (E) CH\(_3\)] CH\(_2\)] CH\(_2\)] COONa
Correct Answer: (E) CH\(_3\)] CH\(_2\)] CH\(_2\)] COONa
View Solution

Question 29:

Which of the following oxidizing agent is used for the iodination of methane?

  • (A) HI
  • (B) KMnO\(_4\)
  • (C) K\(_2\)Cr\(_2\)O\(_7\)
  • (D) HIO\(_3\)
  • (E) K\(_2\)CrO\(_4\)
Correct Answer: (D) HIO\(_3\)
View Solution

Question 30:

The product obtained on ozonolysis of 3-Ethylpent-2-ene are

  • (A) Methanal and 3-Hexanone
  • (B) Pentalan and Propanone
  • (C) Ethanal and Pentan-3-one
  • (D) Ethanal and 3-Hexanone
  • (E) Ethanal and Butanone
Correct Answer: (C) Ethanal and Pentan-3-one
View Solution

Question 31:

The temperature and pressure required for reforming benzene from n-hexane is

  • (A) 473 K, 10-20 atm
  • (B) 773 K, 10-20 atm
  • (C) 523 K, 100 atm
  • (D) 973 K, 1-2 atm
  • (E) 573 K, 10-20 atm
Correct Answer: (C) 523 K, 100 atm
View Solution

Question 32:

Methyl fluoride is prepared by heating methyl bromide in the presence of AgF. This reaction is known as

  • (A) Swarts reaction
  • (B) Finkelstein reaction
  • (C) Sandmeyer’s reaction
  • (D) Wurtz reaction
  • (E) Kolbe’s reaction
Correct Answer: (B) Finkelstein reaction
View Solution

Question 33:

Benzene diazonium chloride on treatment with reagent ‘X’ gives iodobenzene. The reagent ‘X’ is

  • (A) Cu\(_2\)I\(_2\)
  • (B) AgI
  • (C) I\(_2\)
  • (D) HI
  • (E) KI
Correct Answer: (E) KI
View Solution

Question 34:

Which of the following is not a chiral molecule?

  • (A) 2-Chlorobutane
  • (B) 2,3-Dihydroxy propanal
  • (C) 2-Bromo propionic acid
  • (D) Butan-2-ol
  • (E) 2-Bromo-2-methoxypropane
Correct Answer: (E) 2-Bromo-2-methoxypropane
View Solution

Question 35:

The product obtained on the reaction of propanone with \( CH_3MgBr \) followed by hydrolysis is

  • (A) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
  • (B) Butan-1-ol
  • (C) Butan-2-ol
  • (D) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
  • (E) 2-Methylpropane
Correct Answer: (D) 2-Methylpropan-1-ol
View Solution

Question 36:

The reagent used for the conversion of carboxylic acids to primary alcohols is

  • (A) PCC
  • (B) LiAlH\(_4\) / H\(_2\)O
  • (C) NaNO\(_2\) / HCl
  • (D) Pd / H\(_2\)
  • (E) Pt / H\(_2\)
Correct Answer: (B) LiAlH\(_4\) / H\(_2\)O
View Solution

Question 37:

The order of acidity of the following compounds is
(i) o-Nitrophenol (ii) Phenol (iii) o-Cresol (iv) Ethanol

  • (A) (i) \(<\) (iii) \(<\) (ii) \(<\) (iv)
  • (B) (iii) \(<\) (i) \(<\) (ii) \(<\) (iv)
  • (C) (i) \(<\) (ii) \(<\) (iii) \(<\) (iv)
  • (D) (iv) \(<\) (iii) \(<\) (ii) \(<\) (i)
  • (E) (iii) \(<\) (ii) \(<\) (i) \(<\) (iv)
Correct Answer: (C) (i) \(<\) (ii) \(<\) (iii) \(<\) (iv)
View Solution

Question 38:

When benzene is treated with carbon monoxide and hydrogen chloride in the presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride, benzaldehyde is formed. The reaction is known as

  • (A) Etard reaction
  • (B) Stephen reaction
  • (C) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction
  • (D) Gatterman-Koch reaction
  • (E) Aldol reaction
Correct Answer: (D) Gatterman-Koch reaction
View Solution

Question 39:

When C₆H₅CHO reacts with the mixture of HNO\(_3\) and H\(_2\)SO\(_4\) at 273-283K, it gives

  • (A) o-Nitrobenzaldehyde
  • (B) m-Nitrobenzaldehyde
  • (C) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
  • (D) Toluene
  • (E) Nitrobenzene
Correct Answer: (A) o-Nitrobenzaldehyde
View Solution

Question 40:

Match the following:

  • (A) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv)
  • (B) a-(i), b-(i), c-(iv), d-(ii)
  • (C) a-(iii), b-(iii), c-(ii), d-(iv)
  • (D) a-(ii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(iii)
  • (E) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
Correct Answer: (E) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii)
View Solution

Question 41:

The number of moles of alkyl halides required to convert primary amine into quaternary ammonium salt is

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4
  • (E) 5
Correct Answer: (C) 3
View Solution

Question 42:

The order of boiling point of the following amines is
(i) Butan-1-amine

(ii) N-Ethylethanamine

(iii) N,N-Dimethylethanamine

  • (A) (i) > (iii) > (ii)
  • (B) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
  • (C) (iii) > (ii) > (i)
  • (D) (iii) > (i) > (ii)
  • (E) (ii) > (i) > (iii)
Correct Answer: (B) (i) > (ii) > (iii)
View Solution

Question 43:

An aromatic compound (X) of molecular formula, C7H7Cl, on ammonolysis gives Y (Molecular formula, C7H9N). The compound Y reacts with two moles of CH3Cl gives N, N-Dimethylphenylmethanamine. The compounds 'X' and 'Y' are

  • (A) Benzylchloride and Aniline
  • (B) Chlorobenzene and Aniline
  • (C) Benzylchloride and Benzylamine
  • (D) Chlorobenzene and Benzylamine
  • (E) Benzylchloride and Benzylamine
Correct Answer: (C) Benzylchloride and Benzylamine
View Solution

Question 44:

Oxidation of gluconic acid with nitric acid gives

  • (A) n-hexane
  • (B) fructose
  • (C) glucose
  • (D) glyceraldehyde
  • (E) saccharic acid
Correct Answer: (E) saccharic acid
View Solution

Question 45:

The carbohydrates are stored in animal body as

  • (A) cellulose
  • (B) starch
  • (C) glycogen
  • (D) amylopectin
  • (E) amylase
Correct Answer: (C) glycogen
View Solution

Question 46:

The dimensions of \( \frac{B}{E} \) are (B: Magnetic induction, E: Electric field intensity)

  • (A) \( M^0 L^{-2} T^1 \)
  • (B) \( M^0 L^{-1} T^2 \)
  • (C) \( M^0 L^1 T^1 \)
  • (D) \( M^0 L^{-1} T^{-1} \)
  • (E) \( M^0 L^1 T^{-1} \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( M^0 L^{-1} T^{-1} \)
View Solution

Question 47:

A hockey player hits a ball with an impulse of 15 Ns. If time of hit is 0.2 s, the average force exerted by the player on the ball is

  • (A) 75 N
  • (B) 50 N
  • (C) 15 N
  • (D) 20 N
  • (E) 25 N
Correct Answer: (A) 75 N
View Solution

Question 48:

If the position of the particle as a function of time \( t \) is \( \vec{r} = 8t \hat{i} + 3t^2 \hat{j} + 3 \hat{k} \, m \), then the acceleration of the particle is (in \( m/s^2 \))

  • (A) 6
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 8
  • (D) 4
  • (E) 5
Correct Answer: (A) 6
View Solution

Question 49:

The force acting on the particle of 0.2 kg mass whose displacement is described by the equation \( x = 3t + 7t^2 \, m \)

  • (A) 1.0 N
  • (B) 3.2 N
  • (C) 6.4 N
  • (D) 8.6 N
  • (E) 2.8 N
Correct Answer: (E) 2.8 N
View Solution

Question 50:

A bullet of 10 g mass is fired at a speed of 50 m/s by a gun of 2 kg mass. The recoil speed of the gun (in m/s) is

  • (A) 0.3
  • (B) 0.25
  • (C) 0.5
  • (D) 0.75
  • (E) 1.25
Correct Answer: (B) 0.25
View Solution

Question 51:

The work done to lift a 60 kg mass to a height of 5 m from the ground is (g = 10 m/s\(^2\))

  • (A) 3000 J
  • (B) 750 J
  • (C) 1250 J
  • (D) 6000 J
  • (E) 4500 J
Correct Answer: (A) 3000 J
View Solution

Question 52:

Energy equivalent of mass 0.5 kg is

  • (A) \( 9 \times 10^{16} \, J \)
  • (B) \( 3 \times 10^{16} \, J \)
  • (C) \( 2.5 \times 10^{16} \, J \)
  • (D) \( 6 \times 10^{16} \, J \)
  • (E) \( 4.5 \times 10^{16} \, J \)
Correct Answer: (E) \( 4.5 \times 10^{16} \, \text{J} \)
View Solution

Question 53:

Three particles of equal mass lie at distances of 1 cm, 2 cm, and 3 cm from the origin. The distance of their center of mass from the origin is

  • (A) 2 cm
  • (B) 1 cm
  • (C) 2.5 cm
  • (D) 3 cm
  • (E) 6 cm
Correct Answer: (A) 2 cm
View Solution

Question 54:

Angular momentum of a particle will not be zero, if the

  • (A) angle between position vector and linear momentum is 0°
  • (B) particle is at the origin
  • (C) angle between position vector and linear momentum is 90°
  • (D) linear momentum vanishes
  • (E) angle between position vector and linear momentum is 180°
Correct Answer: (C) angle between position vector and linear momentum is 90°
View Solution

Question 55:

An astronaut experiences weightlessness in space satellite because

  • (A) the gravitational force is small at that location
  • (B) both the astronaut and the satellite are in free fall towards Earth
  • (C) of the small gravity in the horizontal direction
  • (D) of the small gravity in the vertical direction
  • (E) of the gravitational pull of the moon
Correct Answer: (B) both the astronaut and the satellite are in free fall towards Earth
View Solution

Question 56:

For smaller deformations, stress is directly proportional to the strain for any material. Then the constant of proportionality is called as its

  • (A) modulus of elasticity
  • (B) Poisson's ratio
  • (C) compressibility
  • (D) coefficient of deformation
  • (E) mechanical strength
Correct Answer: (A) modulus of elasticity
View Solution

Question 57:

Which one of the following principles helps to explain the flow of blood in an artery?

  • (A) Magnus effect
  • (B) Boyle's law
  • (C) Pascal's law
  • (D) Bernoulli's principle
  • (E) Archimedes' principle
Correct Answer: (D) Bernoulli's principle
View Solution

Question 58:

An ideal Carnot engine has an efficiency of 40%. The ratio of the temperature of the sink to that of the source is

  • (A) 0.4
  • (B) 0.6
  • (C) 0.5
  • (D) 0.2
  • (E) 0.3
Correct Answer: (B) 0.6
View Solution

Question 59:

If Q1 and Q2 are respectively the heat supplied and expelled by a system at a constant temperature, then the work done by the system is

  • (A) \( Q_1 - Q_2 \)
  • (B) \( Q_1 + Q_2 \)
  • (C) \( \frac{Q_1 - Q_2}{2} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{Q_2 - Q_1}{2} \)
  • (E) \( \frac{Q_1 + Q_2}{2} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( Q_1 - Q_2 \)
View Solution

Question 60:

For the oscillations of a spring with spring constant k, the false statement is

  • (A) Stiff springs have high value of \( k \)
  • (B) Soft springs have small value of \( k \)
  • (C) The spring constant is independent of the elastic properties of the spring
  • (D) For smaller oscillations, the spring executes simple harmonic motion
  • (E) The period of oscillations of the spring depends upon the value of \( k \)
Correct Answer: (C) The spring constant is independent of the elastic properties of the spring
View Solution

Question 61:

If the amplitude of the wave \( y = 3\sin(3x - 5t) + A\cos(3x - 5t) \) m is 5 m, the value of A is

  • (A) 3 m
  • (B) 2 m
  • (C) 1 m
  • (D) 5 m
  • (E) 4 m
Correct Answer: (E) 4 m
View Solution

Question 62:

In dielectrics, polarization is the dipole moment per unit

  • (A) area
  • (B) electric field
  • (C) volume
  • (D) length
  • (E) charge
Correct Answer: (C) volume
View Solution

Question 63:

The energy density of the electric field \( 2 \, V/m \) in a capacitor \( C \) is \( \varepsilon_0 \) is the permittivity of free space

  • (A) \( 3 \varepsilon_0 \)
  • (B) \( \frac{\varepsilon_0}{2} \)
  • (C) \( 4 \varepsilon_0 \)
  • (D) \( \frac{\varepsilon_0}{4} \)
  • (E) \( 2 \varepsilon_0 \)
Correct Answer: (E) \( 2 \varepsilon_0 \)
View Solution

Question 64:

A carbon resistor has a tolerance of 20%. As per the colour codes of resistors, the last band in that resistor is

  • (A) silver
  • (B) absent
  • (C) red
  • (D) gold
  • (E) blue
Correct Answer: (B) absent
View Solution

Question 65:

When a current of 2 A flows through a wire for 2.5 s, the amount of heat liberated is 20 J. The resistance of the wire is

  • (A) 4 \( \Omega \)
  • (B) 3 \( \Omega \)
  • (C) 1 \( \Omega \)
  • (D) 2 \( \Omega \)
  • (E) 5 \( \Omega \)
Correct Answer: (D) 2 \( \Omega \)
View Solution

Question 66:

The magnetic moment of an electron revolving in an orbit of 0.5 m radius with a velocity of \( 8 \times 10^7 \, m/s \) is (in \( Am^2 \))

  • (A) \( 3.2 \times 10^{-12} \, Am^2 \)
  • (B) \( 0.4 \times 10^{-12} \, Am^2 \)
  • (C) \( 6.4 \times 10^{-12} \, Am^2 \)
  • (D) \( 1.6 \times 10^{-1} \, Am^2 \)
  • (E) \( 0.8 \times 10^{-12} \, Am^2 \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( 3.2 \times 10^{-12} \, \text{Am}^2 \)
View Solution

Question 67:

If an electron moves with a velocity \( v \) in a magnetic field \( B \), the magnetic force on the electron is maximum when the angle between \( v \) and \( B \) is

  • (A) 30°
  • (B) 180°
  • (C) 60°
  • (D) 90°
  • (E) 0°
Correct Answer: (D) 90°
View Solution

Question 68:

The flux linked with a coil at any instant is given by \( \Phi = 5t^2 - 25t - 150 \) (in SI units). The emf induced in the coil at \( t = 2 \) s is

  • (A) +5 V
  • (B) +3 V
  • (C) -1 V
  • (D) -5 V
  • (E) -3 V
Correct Answer: (A) +5 V
View Solution

Question 69:

If the frequency of an electromagnetic wave is 2 MHz, then the time period of oscillation of the accelerated charge is

  • (A) \( 2.5 \times 10^{-7} \) s
  • (B) \( 1 \times 10^{-7} \) s
  • (C) \( 5 \times 10^{-7} \) s
  • (D) \( 6 \times 10^{-7} \) s
  • (E) \( 2 \times 10^{-7} \) s
Correct Answer: (C) \( 5 \times 10^{-7} \) s
View Solution

Question 70:

The eye defect astigmatism can be corrected by using a

  • (A) convex lens
  • (B) spherical lens
  • (C) plano-convex lens
  • (D) concave lens
  • (E) cylindrical lens
Correct Answer: (E) cylindrical lens
View Solution

Question 71:

The intensity of a polarized light can be controlled by a second polarizer from

  • (A) \( 100% \) to \( 0% \)
  • (B) \( 50% \) to \( 0% \)
  • (C) \( 25% \) to \( 0% \)
  • (D) \( 10% \) to \( 0% \)
  • (E) \( 75% \) to \( 0% \)
Correct Answer: (B) \( 50% \) to \( 0% \)
View Solution

Question 72:

If a particle is moving with a momentum of \( (2 \times 10^{10}) h \, kgms^{-1} \), then the de Broglie wavelength associated with it (in angstrom) is (where \( h \) is Planck's constant)

  • (A) \( 1.5 \)
  • (B) \( 2.5 \)
  • (C) \( 1.0 \)
  • (D) \( 0.5 \)
  • (E) \( 0.75 \)
Correct Answer: (D) \( 0.5 \)
View Solution

Question 73:

The angular momentum of the electron revolving in \( 2^{nd} \) orbit is

  • (A) \( \frac{h}{\pi} \)
  • (B) \( \frac{h}{2\pi} \)
  • (C) \( \frac{2h}{\pi} \)
  • (D) \( \frac{3h}{2\pi} \)
  • (E) \( \frac{h}{3\pi} \)
Correct Answer: (A) \( \frac{h}{\pi} \)
View Solution

Question 74:

In the nuclear process, \( {}_{11}^{22}Na \rightarrow {}_{10}^{22}Ne + e^+ + X \), then \( X \) is

  • (A) neutrino
  • (B) anti-neutrino
  • (C) electron
  • (D) positron
  • (E) neutron
Correct Answer: (A) neutrino
View Solution

Question 75:

In a semiconductor crystal, the total number of electrons in the outer shell is \( 4N \). At absolute zero, the number of energy states of valence and conduction band are respectively

  • (A) \( 0 \) and \( 4N \)
  • (B) \( 4N \) and \( 4N \)
  • (C) \( 4N \) and \( 0 \)
  • (D) \( 8N \) and \( 0 \)
  • (E) 0 and 8N
Correct Answer: (B) \( 4N \) and \( 4N \)
View Solution

KEAM 2025 Pharmacy Subject Wise Weightage

Physics carries the highest weightage of 60% in the KEAM 2025 exam. A total of 45 questions are asked from this section.

Chemistry carries the least weightage of 40%. Easy questions are asked from this section as compared to Physics.

Subject No. of Questions Total Marks Weightage (%)
Physics 45 180 60%
Chemistry 30 120 40%
Total 75 300 100%

KEAM 2025 Pharmacy Exam Difficulty Level (Expected)

Based on the previous year KEAM difficulty level data, the following can be expected for KEAM 2025:

Physics is expected to be tough and lengthy due to the numerical problems. Thorough conceptual knowledge and good time management are required.

Chemistry will be of easy to moderate difficulty level. Candidates can maximize their overall scores in this section.

Subject Expected Difficulty
Physics Moderate to Difficult
Chemistry Easy to Moderate
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