GATE 2022 Humanities and Social Sciences - English (XH-C2) Question Paper Available - Download Here with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 15, 2026

GATE 2022 Humanities and Social Sciences - English (XH-C2) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs are available to download for preparation purposes. The exam took place on February 6, 2022 in the Afternoon Session (2:30 PM to 5:30 PM). The question paper of GATE 2022 XH- C2 (English) comprised a total of 65 questions with 39 MCQs, 2 NATs and 24 MSQs. The question paper was divided into three sections- Section GA (General Aptitude), Section B1 (Reasoning Comprehension) and Section XH- C2 (English).

GATE 2022 Humanities and Social Sciences - English (XH-C2)
Question Paper with Solutions

GATE 2022 Humanities and Social Sciences - English (XH-C2) Question Paper download iconDownload Check Solutions
GATE 2022 Humanities and Social Sciences - English (XH-C2) Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Inhaling the smoke from a burning __________ could __________ you quickly.

  • (A) tire / tier
  • (B) tire / tyre
  • (C) tyre / tire
  • (D) tyre / tier

Question 2:

A sphere of radius \(r\) cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.
What should be the minimum volume (in cm\(^3\)) of the box that can enclose the sphere?

  • (A) \( \frac{r^3}{8} \)
  • (B) \( r^3 \)
  • (C) \( 2r^3 \)
  • (D) \( 8r^3 \)

Question 3:

Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes, respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34 litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate.
If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres)?

  • (A) 26.8
  • (B) 60.0
  • (C) 120.0
  • (D) 127.5

Question 4:

Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:
P sits next to S and T.
Q sits diametrically opposite to P.
The shortest distance between S and R is equal to the shortest distance between T and U.
Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of

  • (A) U and S
  • (B) R and T
  • (C) R and U
  • (D) P and S

Question 5:

A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building given below. The doors are closed initially.
What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go from the point P to the point Q?


  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 1

Question 6:

Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher yields sustainably.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information given in the above passage?

  • (A) GSR is an alternative to regular rice, but it grows only in an extreme weather
  • (B) GSR may be used in future in response to adverse effects of climate change
  • (C) GSR grows in an extreme weather, but the quantity of produce is lesser than regular rice
  • (D) Regular rice will continue to provide good yields even in extreme weather

Question 7:

A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below.
When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes. It could come to rest in any one of the sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 as shown.
Two such disks are used in a game where their arrows are independently spun.
What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the resulting sectors upon spinning the two disks is equal to 8 after the arrows come to rest?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{64} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{32} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7}{64} \)

Question 8:

Consider the following inequalities.
(i) \( 3p - q < 4 \)
(ii) \( 3q - p < 12 \)
Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?

  • (A) \( p + q < 8 \)
  • (B) \( p + q = 8 \)
  • (C) \( 8 \leq p + q \leq 16 \)
  • (D) \( p + q \geq 16 \)

Question 9:

Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.

Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.
Statement 2: No writer is an actor.
Statement 3: All actors are engineers.

Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.
Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.
Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.
Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

  • (A) Only conclusion I is correct
  • (B) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct
  • (C) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct
  • (D) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

Question 10:

Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.


Question 11:

A relationship is expressed as Iodine : Goitre.
The pair(s) of words showing SIMILAR relationship is/are

  • (A) Mango : Anaemia
  • (B) Insulin : Diabetes
  • (C) Fat : Obesity
  • (D) Hormones : Heredity

Question 12:

Three individuals are named P, Q, and R. Together they have a total of fifteen children, of which nine are boys. P has three girls and Q has the same number of boys. Q has one more child than P, who has four children. R has four more boys than the number of girls of P. The number of girls of R is equal to the number of boys of P. How many boys do R and P have?

  • (A) R = 3, P = 3
  • (B) R = 4, P = 2
  • (C) R = 5, P = 1
  • (D) R = 2, P = 4

Question 13:

A sentence has been given below.
The train will leave at 8:30 PM, we \underline{have been ready by 7:30 PM, so that we can reach the station on time.
To make the above sentence grammatically correct, the phrase marked in bold is to be replaced by

  • (A) were
  • (B) are
  • (C) must be
  • (D) should have

Question 14:

Complete the sentence correctly using the options given below.
Hastings (p) (q) developed as a holiday resort after (q).

  • (A) (p) = a seaside town, (q) = the first world war
  • (B) (p) = , a seaside town, (q) = the First World War
  • (C) (p) = , a seaside Town, (q) = World War I
  • (D) (p) = A seaside town (q) = World War I

Question 15:

The Arecibo telescope does not resemble what most of us think of when we hear the word telescope. Its reflective surface covers an area of 20 acres, which is quite remarkable. Dangling above it are towers and cables, sub-reflectors and antennas, all of which can be positioned using 26 motors to transmit radio waves and receive echoes with astonishing precision.
From the passage, it can be inferred that most telescopes

  • (A) are not as large as Arecibo
  • (B) do not have reflective surface
  • (C) cannot be re-positioned
  • (D) strictly have 26 motors

Question 16:

Tailgating another vehicle is unsafe and illegal. Many rear-end collisions are caused by drivers following too closely to the vehicle in front of them. The rules state that a driver must keep significant distance from the vehicle in front in order to stop safely and avoid a collision. Drivers should allow a minimum two seconds gap between their vehicle and the one ahead. At 60 km per hour, this equates to a gap of 33 meters; at 100 km per hour, it equates to a gap of 55 meters. More distance is needed to safely stop in rain or poor visibility, as during rain slippery roads reduce the effectiveness of braking.
Which of the following statement(s) can be inferred from the above passage?

  • (A) People drive faster in rain and under poor visibility.
  • (B) Braking may not be as effective during rain as in the dry conditions.
  • (C) Tailgating is against the road rules.
  • (D) Collision has no relationship with tailgating.

Question 17:

There are three separate, but equal-sized boxes. Inside each box, there are two separate small boxes. Inside each of the small boxes, there are four even smaller boxes. The total number of boxes will be _________.


Question 18:

In a specific language, \( xer dan \) means "big horse", \( liro cas \) means "red tomato", and \( dum cas dan \) means "big red barn".
The equivalent word for \textit{barn in this language is

  • (A) dum
  • (B) liro
  • (C) dan
  • (D) cas

Question 19:

Park street is parallel to Rock street. Garden street is perpendicular (90°) to Lake street. Lake street is parallel to Rock street. For the situation described above, the TRUE statement is

  • (A) Park street is perpendicular to Lake street
  • (B) Rock street is parallel to Garden street
  • (C) Park street is parallel to Garden street
  • (D) Garden street is perpendicular to Park street

Question 20:

Six examinations are required to be conducted in a week starting from Sunday to Saturday. Hindi is not scheduled on the first day and English is not scheduled before Hindi. Mathematics is scheduled one day after Physics. Biology is scheduled two days after Hindi. One day prior to Chemistry, there is no examination. Only one examination can be scheduled on a single day and Sunday is not an off day. What are the subjects scheduled on first and the last days?

  • (A) First day Physics, Last day Biology
  • (B) First day Physics, Last day Chemistry
  • (C) First day Physics, Last day English
  • (D) First day English, Last day Biology

Question 21:

A passage consists of 6 sentences. The first and sixth sentences of the passage are at their correct positions, while the middle four sentences (represented by P, Q, R, and S) are jumbled up.
First sentence: Smoke oozed up between the planks.
P: Passengers were told to be ready to quit the ship.
Q: The rising gale fanned the smouldering fire.
R: Everyone now knew there was fire onboard.
S: Flames broke out here and there.
Sixth sentence: Most people bore the shock bravely.
The most logically CORRECT order for the given jumbled up sentences is

  • (A) QSRP
  • (B) QPSR
  • (C) RSPQ
  • (D) PQRS

Question 22:

For a painting to succeed, it is essential that the painter and his public agree about what is significant. The subject of the painting may have a personal meaning for the painter or a common person; but there can also be the possibility of their agreement on its general meaning. It is at this point that the culture of the society and the period in question precedes the artists and her/his art. Renaissance art would have meant nothing to the Aztecs, and vice versa. If, to some extent, a few intellectuals can appreciate them both today, it is because their culture is a historical one. Its inspiration is history and all known developments to date.
According to the passage, which of the following is/are NOT necessarily among the attributes needed for a painter to succeed?

  • (A) The subject must have a personal meaning for the painter.
  • (B) The painter is able to communicate and justify the significance of its subject selection.
  • (C) The painter and the public agree on what is significant.
  • (D) The painting of the subjects is driven by public demand.

Question 23:

Vinod has a pre-determined route. Each morning he delivers 37 newspapers to customers in his neighborhood. It takes Vinod 50 minutes to deliver all the papers. When Vinod was sick or had other engagements, his friend Tarun, who lives on the same street delivered the papers on his behalf.
Find the statement(s) that must be TRUE according to the given information.

  • (A) Vinod and Tarun lived in the same locality.
  • (B) It was dark outside when Vinod began his delivery.
  • (C) It took Tarun more than 50 minutes to deliver the papers.
  • D) Tarun delivered 37 newspapers to customers.

Question 24:

Cholera, typhoid, diphtheria and tuberculosis cause huge number of deaths. Poor quality drinking water has always been the world’s greatest single carrier of sickness. Disease is transmitted when sewage and drinking water come into contact. Children are particularly vulnerable. In some of the poorest countries the infant mortality rate is high. The separation of sewage and the supply of clean drinking water are the domain of civil engineers, and their work makes a significant contribution to public health. That contribution was recognized when public sanitation was voted the greatest medical breakthrough, beating the discoveries including antibiotics and vaccines in a poll organized by the British Medical Journal.
Identify the statement(s), which is/are NOT TRUE according to the passage.

  • (A) Children are less prone to water borne diseases.
  • (B) The infant mortality rate was high in economically weaker countries.
  • (C) The provision of sewage and drinking water should be adequately separated from each other.
  • (D) The literature states that the public health and sanitation was never given its due importance.

Question 25:

Shark’s teeth have evolved to correspond to the diet of each particular species of shark. Consequently, the teeth of the great white shark bear little resemblance to those of the bull shark or nurse shark. There were essentially four different shark diets and thus four varieties of shark teeth. Sharks that feed on fish have needle-like teeth, perfect for spearing and ripping. Sharks that eat mammals such as seals and sea lions have heavy, serrated teeth, typically triangular on the upper jaw and pointed on the lower jaw. Shark that feed in the benthic zone of the ocean have flattened teeth for crushing the shell of the creatures they find scuttling in the sand or clinging to rocks. Sharks that bask have teeth that are largely non-functional; these sharks filter food from the water by passing it through their gills.
Which of the following is/are the CORRECT inference(s) as per the passage?

  • (A) Shark’s teeth are not specially designed for slaughter.
  • (B) The shape of the shark’s teeth relates to its prey.
  • (C) Some species of sharks filter food through their gills.
  • (D) Shark’s teeth relate to its diet.

Question 26:

A particular school management wants to contact all parents, all businessmen and all engineers. The following statistics are available with the school.
Businessmen = 50
Engineers = 25
Parents = 2500
Businessmen who are engineers = 0
Businessmen who are parents = 25
Engineers who are parents = 15
The number of people who need to be contacted are _________.


Question 27:

“He who is unable to live in society, or who has no need because he is sufficient for himself, must be either a beast or a god.”
Who has given the above statement?

  • (A) Aristotle
  • (B) Plato
  • (C) Socrates
  • (D) Rousseau

Question 28:

“History is not made only in statecraft; its lasting results are produced in the ranks of learned men.”
Name the play from which the above excerpt has been taken.

  • (A) Mahesh Dattani’s Thirty Days in September
  • (B) Vijay Tendulkar’s Silence! The Court is in Session
  • (C) Girish Karnad’s Tughlaq
  • (D) Rabindranath Tagore’s Mukta-Dhara

Question 29:

Who amongst the following popularised the term ‘objective correlative’, which is often used in formalist criticism?

  • (A) Virginia Woolf
  • (B) C. S. Lewis
  • (C) Matthew Arnold
  • (D) T. S. Eliot

Question 30:

Which of the following critics preferred Shakespeare’s comedies to his tragedies?

  • (A) Samuel Johnson
  • (B) Alexander Pope
  • (C) John Dryden
  • (D) Thomas De Quincey

Question 31:

Who among the following has been credited with laying the foundation of comparative literature by Russian Formalists?

  • (A) Viktor Shklovsky
  • (B) Alexander Veselovsky
  • (C) Vladimir Propp
  • (D) Roman Jakobson

Question 32:

Lyrical Ballads, considered to be the manifesto of Romantic Poetry, was first published in the year ________.

  • (A) 1795
  • (B) 1797
  • (C) 1789
  • D) 1798

Question 33:

Identify the work from which the following excerpt has been taken:
"In a universe that is suddenly deprived of illusions and of light, man feels a stranger. He is an irremediable exile .... This divorce between man and his life, the actor and his setting, truly constitutes the feeling of Absurdity."

  • (A) Frantz Kafka’s The Trial
  • (B) Samuel Beckett’s Waiting for Godot
  • (C) Albert Camus’ The Myth of Sisyphus
  • (D) Harold Pinter’s The Homecoming

Question 34:

What does gynocriticism recommend as an approach to literature?

  • (A) Considering women’s literature from men’s point of view
  • (B) Examining women’s literature confirming gender stereotypes only
  • (C) Becoming more familiar with the history of women and women’s writing
  • (D) Becoming more familiar with gerontology

Question 35:

Identify the novel which opens with the following lines:
"It was the best of times, it was the worst of times, it was the age of wisdom, it was the age of foolishness, it was the epoch of belief, it was the epoch of incredulity, it was the season of light, it was the season of darkness, it was the spring of hope, it was the winter of despair."

  • (A) Jane Austen’s Emma
  • (B) Emily Brontë’s Wuthering Heights
  • (C) Charles Dickens’ A Tale of Two Cities
  • (D) H. G. Wells’ The Time Machine

Question 36:

Which of the following terms does not form a part of seven types of ambiguities propounded by William Empson?

  • (A) Simulacra
  • (B) Metaphor
  • (C) Pun
  • (D) Simile

Question 37:

Which of the following poem(s) has/have been influenced by Hindu philosophy?

  • (A) The Solitary Reaper
  • (B) Brahma
  • (C) The Curse of Kehama
  • (D) Kubla Khan

Question 38:

Which of the following human behaviour(s) is/are important to a Freudian psychoanalytical study of William Shakespeare’s Hamlet?

  • (A) Art of speaking
  • (B) Changes in emotional states
  • (C) Neurotic behaviour
  • (D) Merry-making

Question 39:

Which of the following novel-author combination(s) is/are correct?

  • (A) Where Shall We Go This Summer-Jane Austen
  • (B) A Passage to England- Nirad C Chaudhuri
  • (C) The Mayor of Casterbridge-Thomas Hardy
  • (D) Pride and Prejudice- Anita Desai

Question 40:

Which of the following statements is/are correct about Phenomenology?

  • (A) It is a form of methodological idealism, seeking to explore an abstraction called ‘human consciousness’.
  • (B) It is a philosophical method associated with Edmund Husserl.
  • (C) It believes that the act of thinking and the object of thought are internally related, mutually dependent.
  • (D) Heidegger’s Being and Time is an important phenomenological treatise supporting the stand of Husserl.

Question 41:

Chitra Divakaruni’s The Mistress of Spices is ________.

  • (A) an experiment in magic realism
  • (B) about immigrant experience
  • (C) a science fiction
  • (D) an epistolary novel

Question 42:

Which of the following is/are correct about postmodernist critics?

  • (A) They foreground fiction and exemplify ‘disappearance of the real’.
  • (B) They foreground irony.
  • (C) They tend towards reflexivity.
  • (D) They challenge the distinction between high and low cultures.

Question 43:

The literary theory of Deconstruction argues that ________.

  • (A) texts are always heterogeneous
  • (B) the meaning of a text never relies on context
  • (C) any system for the production of meaning may be bound by context, yet also limitless
  • (D) texts are always rigid in meaning

Question 44:

In the context of the Reader-Response Theory, Louise M Rosenblatt in her essay "The Poem as Event", considers that the reader should ________.

  • (A) participate in a transaction with the text
  • (B) act against a text
  • (C) be acted upon by the text
  • (D) reject the text

Question 45:

Roland Barthes in his famous essay, “The Death of the Author” ________.

  • (A) believes that the text is to be interpreted in the biographical context of the author
  • (B) challenges the author’s claim as “cogito”, or origin of all knowledge
  • (C) believes that the author has sole claim to his work
  • (D) concludes that an author is an atypical product of his social milieu

Question 46:

What is common among the following novels?
Cormac McCarthy’s The Road, George Orwell’s Nineteen Eighty-Four, Margaret Atwood’s The Handmaid’s Tale

  • (A) These are examples of Utopian fiction.
  • (B) These are examples of Dystopian fiction.
  • (C) They present an idealistic picture of the world.
  • (D) They abound in pleasant descriptions of landscapes, peoples, and places.

Question 47:

Match the following authors with their pseudonyms:

  • (A) i-d, ii-b, iii-a, iv-c
  • (B) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
  • (C) i-a, ii-d, iii-b, iv-c
  • (D) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b

Question 48:

“This literary mode parallels the flouting of authority and inversion of social hierarchies that, in many cultures, are permitted in a season of … . It does so by introducing a mingling of voices from diverse social levels that are free to mock and subvert authority, to flout social norms by ribaldry, and to exhibit various ways of profaning what is ordinarily regarded as sacrosanct.”
The above description explains the concept of ________ .

  • (A) Magic Realism
  • (B) Intertextuality
  • (C) Carnivalesque
  • (D) Heteroglossia

Question 49:

“Postcolonial perspectives emerge from the colonial testimony of Third World countries and the discourses of ‘minorities’ within the geopolitical divisions of East and West, North and South. They intervene in those ideological discourses of modernity that attempt to give a hegemonic ‘normality’ to the uneven development and the differential, often disadvantaged, histories of nations, races, communities, people.”
The above commentary on the postcolonial perspective has been extracted from which of the following?

  • (A) Edward Said’s Orientalism
  • (B) Homi K Bhabha’s The Location of Culture
  • (C) Leela Gandhi’s Postcolonial Theory
  • (D) Bill Ashcroft et al., eds. The Post-colonial Studies Reader

Question 50:

Match the following excerpts with their authors:

  • (A) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d
  • (B) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-c
  • (C) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
  • (D) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

Question 51:

Which of the following statements is the most appropriate in the context of Francoise d' Eaubonne’s concept of Eco-feminism?

  • (A) It is a revolution by women against men to protect Nature.
  • (B) It is a philosophical idea to counter the oppression of women by men, as similar to the oppression and destruction of Nature by men.
  • (C) It is a term used to describe how the human race could be saved by men initiating an ecological revolution.
  • (D) It is a term used to describe the interface between women and technology.

Question 52:

Which of the following books is considered one of the sources behind T. S. Eliot’s poem, The Waste Land?

  • (A) William James’ Principles of Psychology
  • (B) Jessie Weston’s From Ritual to Romance
  • (C) Franz Kafka’s The Metamorphosis
  • (D) Sigmund Freud’s Interpretation of Dreams

Question 53:

"The people who believe most that our greatness and welfare are proved by our being very rich, and who most give their lives and thoughts to becoming rich, are just the very people whom we call Philistines."
What can be inferred from the above statement of Matthew Arnold?

  • (A) Greatness of people lies in their being rich and prosperous.
  • (B) Material prosperity is not the true criterion of a nation’s achievement.
  • (C) Philistines are great people.
  • (D) Arnold thinks very highly of himself.

Question 54:

‘Anagnorisis’, as used by Aristotle in his theory of Tragedy, stands for ________.

  • (A) the hero’s recognition of his tragic flaw
  • (B) the hero’s ignorance about his tragic flaw
  • (C) the hero’s recognition of his adversary
  • (D) the hero’s rejection of his tragic end

Question 55:

Which of the following thinkers does not belong to the school of Existentialism?

  • (A) Jean Paul Sartre
  • (B) Albert Camus
  • (C) Roland Barthes
  • (D) Søren Kierkegaard

Question 56:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are closely associated with the term Fetishism?

  • (A) It is generally defined as an act of paying excessive attention or attributing mystical ability, to an inanimate thing.
  • (B) It is related to Western theories of aesthetics, economics and psychology.
  • (C) It is used in reference to religious objects believed to have magical or spiritual powers.
  • (D) It is generally used to describe Gothic expressionism.

Question 57:

Why does the thin grey strand
Floating up from the forgotten
Cigarette between my fingers,
Why does it trouble me?
Ah, you will understand;
When I carried my mother downstairs,
A few times only, at the beginning
Of her soft-foot malady,
I should find, for a reprimand
To my gaiety, a few long grey hairs
On the breast of my coat; and one by one
I watched them float up the dark chimney.

Which of the following can be considered as correct about the above poem?

  • (A) It is written in the process of grieving for the poet’s mother.
  • (B) It is an autobiographical poem.
  • (C) It is a symbolic poem.
  • (D) It is a poem of youthful celebration.

Question 58:

Which of the given examples of rhetorical/figurative devices is/are correctly paired?

  • (A) ‘What is man, that thou art mindful of him?’ : Paradox
  • (B) ‘Truth makes the greatest libel.’ : Personification
  • (C) ‘Reading furnishes the mind only with material of knowledge; it is thinking makes what we read ours.’ : Antithesis
  • (D) ‘It is a truth universally acknowledged that a single man in possession of a good fortune
    must be in want of a wife.’ : Irony

Question 59:

As per the distinctions made by Toril Moi, regarding the terms ‘feminist’, ‘female’ and ‘feminine’, which of the following is/are correct?

  • (A) The first is ‘a matter of economic manumission’.
  • (B) The second is ‘a matter of psychology’.
  • (C) The first is ‘a political position’.
  • (D) The third is a set of ‘culturally defined characteristics’.

Question 60:

Which of the following author(s) has/have won the Booker Prize twice?

  • (A) Nadine Gordimer
  • (B) J. G. Farrell
  • (C) William Golding
  • (D) Peter Carey

Question 61:

"Nothing feels normal to Ashima, it’s not so much the pain which she will survive. Its consequence: motherhood in a foreign land … unmonitored by those she loves … she is terrified to raise a child in a country where she knows so little, where life seems so tentative and spare."
In the above passage of The Namesake, the writer tries to say that Ashima ________.

  • (A) feels isolated in the new world
  • (B) should have been surrounded by her own people
  • (C) is facing a cultural shock
  • (D) is able to adapt herself to an alien culture

Question 62:

Jean Baudrillard, a post-modern thinker, has suggested that a sign refers to other signs. He has given four stages/phases to support his proposition. Which of the following do(es) not constitute a part of these stages/phases?

  • (A) The sign disguises the fact that there is no corresponding reality underneath.
  • (B) The sign is always peripheral.
  • (C) The sign bears no relation to any reality at all.
  • (D) The sign misrepresents or distorts the reality behind it.

Question 63:

Which of the following apply/apply to the term ‘parapraxis’?

  • (A) It is used in connection with Marxist interpretation of literature.
  • (B) It refers to an error in speech, memory, or physical action that occurs because of the interference of an unconscious subdued wish.
  • (C) The term is generally associated with Jung.
  • (D) The original German word referring to the term is ‘Fehlleistung’.

Question 64:

The epilogue to William Congreve’s The Way of the World, given below, signals some warning(s). What is/are it/they?
quote
“Other there are whose malice we’d prevent,
Such, who watch plays, with scurrilous intent
To mark out who by characters are meant.
These, with false glosses feed their own ill nature,
And turn to libel, what was meant a satire.”

  • (A) Critics should always be supportive of the author.
  • (B) Critics should not look for portrait of real people in the play’s characters and remember that the play is a social satire.
  • (C) Critics should avoid writing malicious reviews, lest they are accused of libel.
  • (D) Critics should try to identify the real life equivalent for each character.

Question 65:

Read the following lines and mark your correct observation(s):

Take my shirt off
and go in there to do the puja
No thanks.
Not me.
But you go right ahead
if that’s what you want to do.
Give me the match box
before you go,
will you?
I will be out in the courtyard
where no one will mind it
if I smoke.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

  • (A) The poem is written in the form of an ode.
  • (B) The poem is skeptic in nature.
  • (C) The poet uses surreal and astonishing images.
  • (D) The poem expresses a rebellious attitude.


GATE 2022 XH- C2 (English) Question Paper: Paper Analysis

Section GA and B1 in GATE 2022 XH- English Question Paper were the same as the other five papers for GATE XH paper. The table below shows the number of 1 mark and 2 marks questions in GATE 2022 XH- English Question Paper:

Type of Questions General Aptitude (GA) Reasoning Comprehension (B1) English (XH- C2)
Number of Questions Marks Number of Questions Marks Number of Questions Marks
No. of 1 mark MCQs 5 5 5 5 10 10
No. of 2 marks MCQs 5 10 5 10 9 18
No. of 1 mark NATs 0 0 1 1 0 0
No. of 2 marks NATs 0 0 1 2 0 0
No. of 1 mark MSQs 0 0 1 1 8 8
No. of 2 marks MSQs 0 0 3 6 12 24

Also Check:

GATE Previous Year Question Papers:

Other PG Exam Question Papers:

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