GATE 2022 Geology Geophysics (GG) Question Paper Available - Download Here with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 15, 2026

GATE 2022 Geology Geophysics (GG) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs is available for download here. The exam was conducted by IIT Kharagpur on February 6 in the Afternoon Session. GATE 2022 GG (Geology and Geo-Physics) Question Paper consisted of 65 questions in total which were of Multiple Choice Questions, and Numerical Answer Types comprising 100 marks to be solved in 3 hours. The overall difficulty level of the paper was moderate. 

GATE 2022 Geology Geophysics (GG) Question Paper with Solutions

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GATE 2022 Geology Geophysics (GG) Question Paper with Solutions


Question 1:

Inhaling the smoke from a burning __________ could __________ you quickly.

  • (A) tire / tier
  • (B) tire / tyre
  • (C) tyre / tire
  • (D) tyre / tier

Question 2:

A sphere of radius \(r\) cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.
What should be the minimum volume (in cm\(^3\)) of the box that can enclose the sphere?

  • (A) \( \frac{r^3}{8} \)
  • (B) \( r^3 \)
  • (C) \( 2r^3 \)
  • (D) \( 8r^3 \)

Question 3:

Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes, respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34 litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate.
If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres)?

  • (A) 26.8
  • (B) 60.0
  • (C) 120.0
  • (D) 127.5

Question 4:

Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:
P sits next to S and T.
Q sits diametrically opposite to P.
The shortest distance between S and R is equal to the shortest distance between T and U.
Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of

  • (A) U and S
  • (B) R and T
  • (C) R and U
  • (D) P and S

Question 5:

A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building given below. The doors are closed initially.
What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go from the point P to the point Q?

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 3
  • (C) 2
  • (D) 1

Question 6:

Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher yields sustainably.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information given in the above passage?

  • (A) GSR is an alternative to regular rice, but it grows only in an extreme weather
  • (B) GSR may be used in future in response to adverse effects of climate change
  • (C) GSR grows in an extreme weather, but the quantity of produce is lesser than regular rice
  • (D) Regular rice will continue to provide good yields even in extreme weather

Question 7:

A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below.
When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes. It could come to rest in any one of the sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 as shown.
Two such disks are used in a game where their arrows are independently spun.
What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the resulting sectors upon spinning the two disks is equal to 8 after the arrows come to rest?

  • (1) \( \frac{1}{16} \)
  • (2) \( \frac{5}{64} \)
  • (3) \( \frac{3}{32} \)
  • (4) \( \frac{7}{64} \)

Question 8:

Consider the following inequalities.
(i) \( 3p - q < 4 \)
(ii) \( 3q - p < 12 \)
Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?

  • (A) \( p + q < 8 \)
  • (B) \( p + q = 8 \)
  • (C) \( 8 \leq p + q \leq 16 \)
  • (D) \( p + q \geq 16 \)

Question 9:

Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.

Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.
Statement 2: No writer is an actor.
Statement 3: All actors are engineers.

Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.
Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.
Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.
Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

  • (A) Only conclusion I is correct
  • (B) Only conclusion II and conclusion III are correct
  • (C) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct
  • (D) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

Question 10:

Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.


Question 11:

Which one of the following is the typical product of ductile deformation?

  • (A) Gouge
  • (B) Breccia
  • (C) Cataclasite
  • (D) Mylonite

Question 12:

Which one among the following coastal erosional landforms is caused by the action of sea waves?

  • (A) Ventifact
  • (B) Kettle
  • (C) Cirque
  • (D) Cliff

Question 13:

In which one of the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum does the maximum atmospheric scattering occur?

  • (A) UV
  • (B) IR
  • (C) Radiowave
  • (D) Microwave

Question 14:

Which one of the following is the Poisson’s ratio for an incompressible fluid?

  • (A) 0
  • (B) 0.25
  • (C) 1
  • (D) 0.5

Question 15:

Which among the following Period(s) belong(s) to the Paleozoic Era?

  • (A) Carboniferous
  • (B) Paleogene
  • (C) Silurian
  • (D) Cretaceous

Question 16:

The average bulk density of a fully saturated sandstone reservoir with a fractional porosity of 0.23 is ________ g/cc. [round off to 2 decimal places]


Question 17:

For a productive alluvial aquifer with hydraulic conductivity = 105 m/day and hydraulic gradient = 0.01, the flow rate is ________ m/day. [round off to 2 decimal places]


Question 18:

The relationship between conjugate shear fractures and the principal stresses in a homogeneous, isotropic, deformed body is shown in the stereoplot given below (\( \sigma_1, \sigma_2, \sigma_3 \) are compressive stresses). Which one of the given fault regimes is indicated according to Anderson’s theory of faulting for the formation of conjugate shear fractures under plane strain?

  • (A) Dextrial strike-slip
  • (B) Sinistral strike-slip
  • (C) Reverse
  • (D) Normal

Question 19:

How many independent elastic parameters are needed to describe a homogeneous isotropic material?

  • (A) 21
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 36
  • (D) 3

Question 20:

Which one of the following is a mafic volcanic rock?

  • (A) Dacite
  • (B) Trachyte
  • (C) Rhyolite
  • (D) Basalt

Question 21:

The intercepts of a crystal face on the crystallographic axes are \( \infty a \), \( 2b \), and \( 3c \). Which one of the following is its Miller Index?

  • (A) \( (032) \)
  • (B) \( (023) \)
  • (C) \( (203) \)
  • (D) \( (320) \)

Question 22:

Match the locations in Group I with the corresponding economic deposits in Group II.

  • (A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
  • (B) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2
  • (C) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
  • (D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3

Question 23:

Choose the CORRECT statement(s) on seismic wave propagation in an elastic isotropic medium.

  • (A) P-waves are polarized in the direction of propagation.
  • (B) S-waves are polarized in the direction of propagation.
  • (C) Rayleigh waves are elliptically polarized.
  • (D) Love waves are elliptically polarized.

Question 24:

The difference in arrival times of P- and S-waves generated by an earthquake and recorded at a seismological station is one second. Assuming a homogeneous and isotropic Earth, a P-wave velocity (\( V_P \)) of 3 km/s, the ratio of P- to S-wave velocities (\( V_P/V_S \)) of 2.0, the distance between the station and the hypocenter is ________ km. \text{[round off to 1 decimal place]


Question 25:

Assuming the rate of rotation of the Earth is \( 7.27 \times 10^{-5} \) radians/s and the radius of Earth is 6371 km, the centrifugal acceleration at 60° latitude for a spherically rotating Earth is ________ \( \times 10^{-3} \) m/s\(^2\). \text{[round off to 1 decimal place]


Question 26:

The angle of inclination of the remanent magnetization of a volcanic rock measured at a location is 45°. The magnetic latitude of the location of the volcanic rock at the time of its magnetization is ________° N. [round off to 1 decimal place]


Question 27:

A coarse-grained igneous rock consists of 55% olivine, 25% augite, and 20% enstatite. According to the IUGS classification, the rock is

  • (A) websterite
  • (B) lherzolite
  • (C) wehrlite
  • (D) harzburgite

Question 28:

The rock-type used to build the walls of the Red Fort in Delhi is

  • (A) sandstone
  • (B) marble
  • (C) granite
  • (D) basalt

Question 29:

During crystallization of a magma, which one of the following schematic paths (I, II, III and IV) describes the behavior of compatible elements in the residual melt?

  • (A) II
  • (B) IV
  • (C) I
  • (D) III

Question 30:

In the geological map of India, which one of the following geological units has the largest area?

  • (A) Vindhyan Supergroup
  • (B) Deccan Volcanic Province
  • (C) Singhbhum Granite
  • (D) Mesozoic rocks of Kutch

Question 31:

Which one of the following cross-stratifications provides the paleocurrent direction on the truncated bedding surface of an undeformed cross-stratified sedimentary strata?

  • (A) Tabular
  • (B) Hummocky
  • (C) Trough
  • (D) Herringbone

Question 32:

Which one of the following is a dinosaur?

  • (A) Stegodon
  • (B) Stegosaurus
  • (C) Equus
  • (D) Otoceras

Question 33:

The Hoek-Brown failure envelope is typically the segment of which one of the following?

  • (A) Straight line
  • (B) Ellipse
  • (C) Parabola
  • (D) Hyperbola

Question 34:

Which one of the following is the optical spectral window suitable for remote sensing?

  • (A) 0.02 – 0.2 μm
  • (B) 0.4 – 14 μm
  • (C) 0.8 – 2.0 μm
  • (D) 0.01 – 1 m

Question 35:

A radioactive nucleus \( {}^{290}_{92}X \) decays to \( {}^{278}_{87}Y \). The number of \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) particles emitted during this decay are

  • (A) 12\( \alpha \) and 1\( \beta^+ \)
  • (B) 6\( \alpha \) and 1\( \beta^- \)
  • (C) 3\( \alpha \) and 1\( \beta^+ \)
  • (D) 3\( \alpha \) and 1\( \beta^- \)

Question 36:

The silicate mineral(s) that commonly occur(s) in regionally metamorphosed siliceous dolomitic limestone is/are

  • (A) Diopside
  • (B) Cordierite
  • (C) Tremolite
  • (D) Wollastonite

Question 37:

Which of the natural hazard(s) listed below can be caused by Earthquakes?

  • (A) Tsunamis
  • (B) Landslides
  • (C) Cyclones
  • (D) Lightning

Question 38:

Which of the following is/are the driving force(s) behind plate motion?

  • (A) Slab-Pull
  • (B) Ridge-Push
  • (C) Mantle Convection
  • (D) Advection

Question 39:

Which of the following is/are copper ore mineral(s)?

  • (A) Bornite
  • (B) Pentlandite
  • (C) Gahnite
  • (D) Covellite

Question 40:

Which of the following stratigraphic unit(s) of the Vindhyan Supergroup contain(s) commercially significant limestone deposit(s)?

  • (A) Bhander Formation
  • (B) Rewa Formation
  • (C) Kaimur Formation
  • (D) Rohtas Formation

Question 41:

The strike and dip of the axial plane of a reclined fold is 022° and 28° SE, respectively. The plunge direction (in whole circle bearing) of the axis of the reclined fold is ________ degrees. [in integer]


Question 42:

If the shrinkage factor of a crude oil is 0.7, its formation volume factor is ________. [round off to 1 decimal place]


Question 43:

The cross section of a river channel is approximated by a trapezium. The river has an average channel width of 40 m and average depth of 3 m. If the average flow speed is 2 m/s, the discharge rate is ________ m³/s. [in integer]


Question 44:

A mineral of uniform composition is cut into a wedge shape. The birefringence of the wedge section is 0.012. The retardation at 40 µm thickness of the wedge is ________ nm. [in integer]


Question 45:

The sand supply and the variability of wind direction result in different dune types. In the options below, choose the CORRECT pair of dune types marked I and II in the figure.

  • (A) I – Transverse dune; II – Barchan dune
  • (B) I – Star dune; II – Barchan dune
  • (C) I – Barchan dune; II – Linear dune
  • (D) I – Barchan dune; II – Star dune

Question 46:

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?

  • (A) Salt dome traps are abundant in the Upper Assam Basin
  • (B) Fold and thrust related traps are common in the Mumbai Offshore Basin
  • (C) Limestone is the predominant reservoir rock in the Cambay Basin
  • (D) Sandstone is the reservoir rock in the Krishna-Godavari Basin

Question 47:

Identify the common metamorphic minerals labelled X and Y in the ACF diagram.

  • (A) X – Anorthite; Y – Actinolite
  • (B) X – Grossular; Y – Diopside
  • (C) X – Wollastonite; Y – Almandine
  • (D) X – Ferrosilite; Y – Andradite

Question 48:

Which one of the following schematic P-T paths is characteristic for a rock metamorphosed in a subduction zone?


Question 49:

Which one of the following is the CORRECT statement regarding the ecology of bivalves?

  • (A) Pholas is a swimming form
  • (B) Venus is a shallow burrower
  • (C) Pecten is a stone borer
  • (D) Spondylus is a deep burrower

Question 50:

On a fault surface with strike 320° and dip 55° NE, respectively, four sets of slickenslides were measured by a geologist. Given that the fault surface was measured correctly, the plunge and plunge direction of the lineation on the fault surface is

  • (A) 55° → 050°
  • (B) 20° → 320°
  • (C) 50° → 325°
  • (D) 60° → 090°

Question 51:

Match the following tectonic settings in Group-I with the corresponding examples in Group-II

  • (A) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
  • (B) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1
  • (C) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
  • (D) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2

Question 52:

Match the following igneous textures in Group-I with their definitions in Group-II.

  • (A) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1
  • (B) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
  • (C) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3
  • (D) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2

Question 53:

Match the Volcanogenic Massive Sulfide (VMS)-type deposits in Group-I with the dominant mineralized host rocks in Group-II.

  • (A) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
  • (B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
  • (C) P-4; Q-3; R-1; S-2
  • (D) P-1; Q-4; R-2; S-3

Question 54:

The following diagram shows phase relations in a system consisting of components A and B at 1 bar pressure. If the initial composition of liquid is R, during cooling and crystallization of magma, which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

  • (A) On complete crystallization of magma, the final composition (in wt.%) of rock consists of 25% of mineral A and 75% of mineral B.
  • (B) On cooling of magma, mineral A is the first mineral to crystallize.
  • (C) At point Q, the weight percentages of crystal and liquid are 37.5 and 62.5, respectively.
  • (D) The composition (in wt.%) of liquid at point E is 40% A and 60% B.

Question 55:

Which of the following systems tract(s) indicate regression?

  • (A) Transgressive systems tract
  • (B) Falling stage systems tract
  • (C) Highstand systems tract
  • (D) Lowstand systems tract

Question 56:

Which of the following sedimentary feature(s) indicate(s) sub-aerial exposure of the depositional surface?

  • (A) Groove cast
  • (B) Double mud drape
  • (C) Rain print
  • (D) Adhesion ripple

Question 57:

Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?

  • (A) Diatoms are algal forms.
  • (B) Dinoflagellates are unicellular algae.
  • (C) Petropods are planktic gastropods.
  • (D) Radiolarians are organic-walled microfossils.

Question 58:

Which among the following space groups is/are non-compatible with glide plane?

  • (A) Pab2₁
  • (B) Pnma
  • (C) P6₃/c
  • (D) P3c₁

Question 59:

Which type of porphyroclast(s) listed below is/are suitable as kinematic indicators in ductile shear zones?

  • (A) \( \sigma \)- type
  • (B) \( \Theta \)- type
  • (C) \( \delta \)- type
  • (D) \( \varphi \)- type

Question 60:

Which of the following parameter(s) is/are Rock Mass Rating (RMR) based on?

  • (A) Rock Quality Designation
  • (B) Uniaxial compressive strength of intact rock
  • (C) Groundwater conditions
  • (D) Rock composition

Question 61:

A sample of 10 g coal yields 1 g of moisture, 2 g of ash and 5.6 g of volatile matter. The percentage of volatile matter content of the coal on dry ash-free basis is ________. [round off to 1 decimal place]


Question 62:

A soil sample shows an average beta count of 6.8 counts per minute (cpm) per gram of organic carbon. The \( C^{14} \) count rate from organic carbon of present day vegetation is 15.26 cpm/g. The age of the sample is ________ years. [round off to 1 decimal place] (Half-life of \( \text{C^{14} \) = 5370 years)


Question 63:

A digital camera with a focal length of 150 mm is flown at a height of 3000 m over a flat terrain for taking aerial photographs. The scale of the aerial photograph is 1: ________. [in integer]


Question 64:

The following reaction occurs at 1 bar and 823 K.
Grossular + Quartz = Anorthite + 2 Wollastonite

Using the above molar thermodynamic data, the calculated slope of the above reaction is ________ bar K\(^{-1}\). [round off to 2 decimal places]


Question 65:

Operating costs of an open cast gold mine are Rs. 4000/tonne. The recovery at the mill is 9%. At a gold price of Rs. 4550/g, the cutoff grade of gold calculated on the basis of operating cost is ________ g/tonne. [round off to 2 decimal places]



GATE 2022 GG Answer Key Details

Question No. Answer Question No. Answer
1 C 34 B
2 D 35 D
3 C 36 A, C, D OR A, C
4 C 37 A, B
5 C 38 A, B, C
6 B 39 A, D
7 D 40 A, D
8 A 41 112 to 112
9 C 42 1.4 to 1.5
10 C 43 240 to 240
11 D 44 480 to 480
12 D 45 B
13 A 46 D
14 D 47 B
15 A, C 48 B
16 2.24 to 2.30 49 B
17 1.00 to 1.10 50 A
18 C 51 A
19 B 52 C
20 D 53 B
21 A 54 A, C
22 C 55 B, C, D
23 A, C 56 C, D
24 3.0 to 3.0 57 A, B, C OR A,B
25 16.3 to 17.3 58 A, C
26 26.2 to 27.0 59 A, C
27 B 60 A, B, C
28 A 61 80.0 to 80.0
29 B 62 6261.0 to 6266.0
30 B 63 20000 to 20000
31 C 64 20.00 to 21.00
32 B 65 0.96 to 1.00
33 C

GATE 2022 GG Paper Analysis

  • The General Aptitude for GATE 2022 GG was moderately difficult but the core subjects were of high difficulty levels. 
  • As compared to 2021, GATE 2022 GG question paper was reported to be slightly difficult. 
  • NATs contained maximum markings and MSQs were not asked in the paper making it more scoring. 
  • A total of 35- 40 NATs were asked in the paper making it easier to score as there is no negative marking for Numerical Ability Type questions.
  • Candidates found a lot of calculative questions making the paper a bit lengthier. However, the concepts were basic (not required in-depth analysis) and a candidate with good practice could easily meet the cut-off.

In the table mentioned below, a total of different types of questions with carried marks are tabulated for GATE 2022 GG Question Paper:

Types of Questions Questions Frequency Total marks carried
MCQs carrying 1 mark 20 20
MCQs carrying 2 marks 5 10
NATs carrying 1 mark 10 10
NATs carrying 2 marks 30 60
Total 65 100

GATE Previous Year Question Papers

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