GATE 2022 Geology Geophysics (GG) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs is available for download here. The exam was conducted by IIT Kharagpur on February 6 in the Afternoon Session. GATE 2022 GG (Geology and Geo-Physics) Question Paper consisted of 65 questions in total which were of Multiple Choice Questions, and Numerical Answer Types comprising 100 marks to be solved in 3 hours. The overall difficulty level of the paper was moderate.
GATE 2022 Geology Geophysics (GG) Question Paper with Solutions
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Inhaling the smoke from a burning __________ could __________ you quickly.
A sphere of radius \(r\) cm is packed in a box of cubical shape.
What should be the minimum volume (in cm\(^3\)) of the box that can enclose the sphere?
Pipes P and Q can fill a storage tank in full with water in 10 and 6 minutes, respectively. Pipe R draws the water out from the storage tank at a rate of 34 litres per minute. P, Q and R operate at a constant rate.
If it takes one hour to completely empty a full storage tank with all the pipes operating simultaneously, what is the capacity of the storage tank (in litres)?
Six persons P, Q, R, S, T, and U are sitting around a circular table facing the center not necessarily in the same order. Consider the following statements:
P sits next to S and T.
Q sits diametrically opposite to P.
The shortest distance between S and R is equal to the shortest distance between T and U.
Based on the above statements, Q is a neighbor of
A building has several rooms and doors as shown in the top view of the building given below. The doors are closed initially.
What is the minimum number of doors that need to be opened in order to go from the point P to the point Q?

Rice, a versatile and inexpensive source of carbohydrate, is a critical component of diet worldwide. Climate change, causing extreme weather, poses a threat to sustained availability of rice. Scientists are working on developing Green Super Rice (GSR), which is resilient under extreme weather conditions yet gives higher yields sustainably.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the information given in the above passage?
A game consists of spinning an arrow around a stationary disk as shown below.
When the arrow comes to rest, there are eight equally likely outcomes. It could come to rest in any one of the sectors numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, or 8 as shown.
Two such disks are used in a game where their arrows are independently spun.
What is the probability that the sum of the numbers on the resulting sectors upon spinning the two disks is equal to 8 after the arrows come to rest?

Consider the following inequalities.
(i) \( 3p - q < 4 \)
(ii) \( 3q - p < 12 \)
Which one of the following expressions below satisfies the above two inequalities?
Given below are three statements and four conclusions drawn based on the statements.
Statement 1: Some engineers are writers.
Statement 2: No writer is an actor.
Statement 3: All actors are engineers.
Conclusion I: Some writers are engineers.
Conclusion II: All engineers are actors.
Conclusion III: No actor is a writer.
Conclusion IV: Some actors are writers.
Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?
Which one of the following sets of pieces can be assembled to form a square with a single round hole near the center? Pieces cannot overlap.

Which one of the following is the typical product of ductile deformation?
Which one among the following coastal erosional landforms is caused by the action of sea waves?
In which one of the following regions of the electromagnetic spectrum does the maximum atmospheric scattering occur?
Which one of the following is the Poisson’s ratio for an incompressible fluid?
Which among the following Period(s) belong(s) to the Paleozoic Era?
The average bulk density of a fully saturated sandstone reservoir with a fractional porosity of 0.23 is ________ g/cc. [round off to 2 decimal places]
For a productive alluvial aquifer with hydraulic conductivity = 105 m/day and hydraulic gradient = 0.01, the flow rate is ________ m/day. [round off to 2 decimal places]
The relationship between conjugate shear fractures and the principal stresses in a homogeneous, isotropic, deformed body is shown in the stereoplot given below (\( \sigma_1, \sigma_2, \sigma_3 \) are compressive stresses). Which one of the given fault regimes is indicated according to Anderson’s theory of faulting for the formation of conjugate shear fractures under plane strain?

How many independent elastic parameters are needed to describe a homogeneous isotropic material?
Which one of the following is a mafic volcanic rock?
The intercepts of a crystal face on the crystallographic axes are \( \infty a \), \( 2b \), and \( 3c \). Which one of the following is its Miller Index?
Match the locations in Group I with the corresponding economic deposits in Group II.

Choose the CORRECT statement(s) on seismic wave propagation in an elastic isotropic medium.
The difference in arrival times of P- and S-waves generated by an earthquake and recorded at a seismological station is one second. Assuming a homogeneous and isotropic Earth, a P-wave velocity (\( V_P \)) of 3 km/s, the ratio of P- to S-wave velocities (\( V_P/V_S \)) of 2.0, the distance between the station and the hypocenter is ________ km. \text{[round off to 1 decimal place]
Assuming the rate of rotation of the Earth is \( 7.27 \times 10^{-5} \) radians/s and the radius of Earth is 6371 km, the centrifugal acceleration at 60° latitude for a spherically rotating Earth is ________ \( \times 10^{-3} \) m/s\(^2\). \text{[round off to 1 decimal place]
The angle of inclination of the remanent magnetization of a volcanic rock measured at a location is 45°. The magnetic latitude of the location of the volcanic rock at the time of its magnetization is ________° N. [round off to 1 decimal place]
A coarse-grained igneous rock consists of 55% olivine, 25% augite, and 20% enstatite. According to the IUGS classification, the rock is
The rock-type used to build the walls of the Red Fort in Delhi is
During crystallization of a magma, which one of the following schematic paths (I, II, III and IV) describes the behavior of compatible elements in the residual melt?

In the geological map of India, which one of the following geological units has the largest area?
Which one of the following cross-stratifications provides the paleocurrent direction on the truncated bedding surface of an undeformed cross-stratified sedimentary strata?
Which one of the following is a dinosaur?
The Hoek-Brown failure envelope is typically the segment of which one of the following?
Which one of the following is the optical spectral window suitable for remote sensing?
A radioactive nucleus \( {}^{290}_{92}X \) decays to \( {}^{278}_{87}Y \). The number of \( \alpha \) and \( \beta \) particles emitted during this decay are
The silicate mineral(s) that commonly occur(s) in regionally metamorphosed siliceous dolomitic limestone is/are
Which of the natural hazard(s) listed below can be caused by Earthquakes?
Which of the following is/are the driving force(s) behind plate motion?
Which of the following is/are copper ore mineral(s)?
Which of the following stratigraphic unit(s) of the Vindhyan Supergroup contain(s) commercially significant limestone deposit(s)?
The strike and dip of the axial plane of a reclined fold is 022° and 28° SE, respectively. The plunge direction (in whole circle bearing) of the axis of the reclined fold is ________ degrees. [in integer]
If the shrinkage factor of a crude oil is 0.7, its formation volume factor is ________. [round off to 1 decimal place]
The cross section of a river channel is approximated by a trapezium. The river has an average channel width of 40 m and average depth of 3 m. If the average flow speed is 2 m/s, the discharge rate is ________ m³/s. [in integer]
A mineral of uniform composition is cut into a wedge shape. The birefringence of the wedge section is 0.012. The retardation at 40 µm thickness of the wedge is ________ nm. [in integer]
The sand supply and the variability of wind direction result in different dune types. In the options below, choose the CORRECT pair of dune types marked I and II in the figure.

Which one of the following statements is CORRECT?
Identify the common metamorphic minerals labelled X and Y in the ACF diagram.

Which one of the following schematic P-T paths is characteristic for a rock metamorphosed in a subduction zone?

Which one of the following is the CORRECT statement regarding the ecology of bivalves?
On a fault surface with strike 320° and dip 55° NE, respectively, four sets of slickenslides were measured by a geologist. Given that the fault surface was measured correctly, the plunge and plunge direction of the lineation on the fault surface is
Match the following tectonic settings in Group-I with the corresponding examples in Group-II

Match the following igneous textures in Group-I with their definitions in Group-II.

Match the Volcanogenic Massive Sulfide (VMS)-type deposits in Group-I with the dominant mineralized host rocks in Group-II.

The following diagram shows phase relations in a system consisting of components A and B at 1 bar pressure. If the initial composition of liquid is R, during cooling and crystallization of magma, which of the following statement(s) is/are CORRECT?

Which of the following systems tract(s) indicate regression?
Which of the following sedimentary feature(s) indicate(s) sub-aerial exposure of the depositional surface?
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
Which among the following space groups is/are non-compatible with glide plane?
Which type of porphyroclast(s) listed below is/are suitable as kinematic indicators in ductile shear zones?
Which of the following parameter(s) is/are Rock Mass Rating (RMR) based on?
A sample of 10 g coal yields 1 g of moisture, 2 g of ash and 5.6 g of volatile matter. The percentage of volatile matter content of the coal on dry ash-free basis is ________. [round off to 1 decimal place]
A soil sample shows an average beta count of 6.8 counts per minute (cpm) per gram of organic carbon. The \( C^{14} \) count rate from organic carbon of present day vegetation is 15.26 cpm/g. The age of the sample is ________ years. [round off to 1 decimal place] (Half-life of \( \text{C^{14} \) = 5370 years)
A digital camera with a focal length of 150 mm is flown at a height of 3000 m over a flat terrain for taking aerial photographs. The scale of the aerial photograph is 1: ________. [in integer]
The following reaction occurs at 1 bar and 823 K.
Grossular + Quartz = Anorthite + 2 Wollastonite

Using the above molar thermodynamic data, the calculated slope of the above reaction is ________ bar K\(^{-1}\). [round off to 2 decimal places]
Operating costs of an open cast gold mine are Rs. 4000/tonne. The recovery at the mill is 9%. At a gold price of Rs. 4550/g, the cutoff grade of gold calculated on the basis of operating cost is ________ g/tonne. [round off to 2 decimal places]
GATE 2022 GG Answer Key Details
| Question No. | Answer | Question No. | Answer |
|---|---|---|---|
| 1 | C | 34 | B |
| 2 | D | 35 | D |
| 3 | C | 36 | A, C, D OR A, C |
| 4 | C | 37 | A, B |
| 5 | C | 38 | A, B, C |
| 6 | B | 39 | A, D |
| 7 | D | 40 | A, D |
| 8 | A | 41 | 112 to 112 |
| 9 | C | 42 | 1.4 to 1.5 |
| 10 | C | 43 | 240 to 240 |
| 11 | D | 44 | 480 to 480 |
| 12 | D | 45 | B |
| 13 | A | 46 | D |
| 14 | D | 47 | B |
| 15 | A, C | 48 | B |
| 16 | 2.24 to 2.30 | 49 | B |
| 17 | 1.00 to 1.10 | 50 | A |
| 18 | C | 51 | A |
| 19 | B | 52 | C |
| 20 | D | 53 | B |
| 21 | A | 54 | A, C |
| 22 | C | 55 | B, C, D |
| 23 | A, C | 56 | C, D |
| 24 | 3.0 to 3.0 | 57 | A, B, C OR A,B |
| 25 | 16.3 to 17.3 | 58 | A, C |
| 26 | 26.2 to 27.0 | 59 | A, C |
| 27 | B | 60 | A, B, C |
| 28 | A | 61 | 80.0 to 80.0 |
| 29 | B | 62 | 6261.0 to 6266.0 |
| 30 | B | 63 | 20000 to 20000 |
| 31 | C | 64 | 20.00 to 21.00 |
| 32 | B | 65 | 0.96 to 1.00 |
| 33 | C |
GATE 2022 GG Paper Analysis
- The General Aptitude for GATE 2022 GG was moderately difficult but the core subjects were of high difficulty levels.
- As compared to 2021, GATE 2022 GG question paper was reported to be slightly difficult.
- NATs contained maximum markings and MSQs were not asked in the paper making it more scoring.
- A total of 35- 40 NATs were asked in the paper making it easier to score as there is no negative marking for Numerical Ability Type questions.
- Candidates found a lot of calculative questions making the paper a bit lengthier. However, the concepts were basic (not required in-depth analysis) and a candidate with good practice could easily meet the cut-off.
In the table mentioned below, a total of different types of questions with carried marks are tabulated for GATE 2022 GG Question Paper:
| Types of Questions | Questions Frequency | Total marks carried |
|---|---|---|
| MCQs carrying 1 mark | 20 | 20 |
| MCQs carrying 2 marks | 5 | 10 |
| NATs carrying 1 mark | 10 | 10 |
| NATs carrying 2 marks | 30 | 60 |
| Total | 65 | 100 |
GATE Previous Year Question Papers
GATE exam aspirants are advised to solve GATE previous year question papers to increase their precision level. The table given below contains the links to download GATE previous year question papers:
| GATE 2022 Question Papers | GATE 2021 Question Papers | GATE 2020 Question Papers |
| GATE 2019 Question Papers | GATE 2018 Question Papers | GATE 2017 Question Papers |





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