GATE 2022 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper Available - Download Here with Solution PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 15, 2026

GATE 2022 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Solutions PDFs are out now. GATE 2022 BT was held in February 12, 2022 by IIT Kharagpur. The duration of the exam was 180 minutes. The question paper of GATE 2022 BT was a set of 65 questions that were distributed between two parts i.e. General Aptitude and Biotechnology. 10 questions were related to General Aptitude, while the remaining 55 questions were related to core Biotechnology including Engineering Mathematics. Nearly 70% of the total weightage was carried by core Biotechnology sections.

GATE 2022 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Solutions

Candidates targeting GATE can download the PDFs for GATE 2022 BT Question Paper and Solutions to know the important topics asked, and check their preparation level by solving the past question papers.

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GATE 2022 Biotechnology (BT) Question Paper with Solutions

Question 1:

You should ______ when to say ______.

  • (A) no / no
  • (B) no / know
  • (C) know / know
  • (D) know / no

Question 2:

Two straight lines pass through the origin \( (x_0, y_0) = (0, 0) \). One of them passes through the point \( (x_1, y_1) = (1, 3) \) and the other passes through the point \( (x_2, y_2) = (1, 2) \). What is the area enclosed between the straight lines in the interval \( [0, 1] \) on the x-axis?

  • (A) 0.5
  • (B) 1.0
  • (C) 1.5
  • (D) 2.0

Question 3:

If \[ p : q = 1 : 2, \quad q : r = 4 : 3, \quad r : s = 4 : 5 \]
and \( u \) is 50% more than \( s \), what is the ratio \( p : u \)?

  • (A) 2 : 15
  • (B) 16 : 15
  • (C) 1 : 5
  • (D) 16 : 45

Question 4:

Given the statements:
P is the sister of Q.
Q is the husband of R.
R is the mother of S.
T is the husband of P.
Based on the above information, T is _________ of S.

  • (A) the grandfather
  • (B) an uncle
  • (C) the father
  • (D) a brother

Question 5:

In the following diagram, the point R is the center of the circle. The lines PQ and ZV are tangential to the circle. The relation among the areas of the squares, PXWR, RUVZ and SPQT is

  • (A) Area of SPQT = Area of RUVZ = Area of PXWR
  • (B) Area of SPQT = Area of PXWR − Area of RUVZ
  • (C) Area of PXWR = Area of SPQT − Area of RUVZ
  • (D) Area of PXWR = Area of RUVZ − Area of SPQT

Question 6:

Healthy eating is a critical component of healthy aging. When should one start eating healthy? It turns out that it is never too early. For example, babies who start eating healthy in the first year are more likely to have better overall health as they get older.

  • (A) Healthy eating is important for those with good health conditions, but not for others
  • (B) Eating healthy can be started at any age, earlier the better
  • (C) Eating healthy and better overall health are more correlated at a young age, but not at later ages
  • (D) Eating healthy is important only in the first year of life

Question 7:

P invested ₹ 5000 per month for 6 months of a year and Q invested ₹ x per month for 8 months of the year in a partnership business. The profit is shared in proportion to the total investment made in that year.
If at the end of that investment year, Q receives \( \frac{4}{9} \) of the total profit, what is the value of \( x \) (in ₹)?

  • (A) 2500
  • (B) 3000
  • (C) 4687
  • (D) 8437

Question 8:

The above frequency chart shows the frequency distribution of marks obtained by a set of students in an exam.
From the data presented above, which one of the following is CORRECT?

  • (A) mean \(>\) mode \(>\) median
  • (B) mean = mode = median
  • (C) mean \(<\) mode \(<\) median
  • (D) mean \(<\) median \(<\) mode

Question 9:

In the square grid shown on the left, a person standing at P2 position is required to move to P5 position.
The only movement allowed for a step involves, "two moves along one direction followed by one move in a perpendicular direction". The permissible directions for movement are shown as dotted arrows in the right.
For example, a person at a given position Y can move only to the positions marked X on the right.
Without occupying any of the shaded squares at the end of each step, the minimum number of steps required to go from P2 to P5 is:

  • (A) 4
  • (B) 5
  • (C) 6
  • (D) 7

Question 10:

Consider a cube made by folding a single sheet of paper of appropriate shape. The interior faces of the cube are all blank. However, the exterior faces that are not visible in the above view may not be blank. Which one of the following represents a possible unfolding of the cube?



Question 11:

What is the order of the differential equation given below?
\[ \frac{d^2y}{dx^2} - 6x = 3x^4 - 2x^3 + 2 \]

  • (A) 1
  • (B) 2
  • (C) 3
  • (D) 4

Question 12:

If the eigenvalues of a \(2 \times 2\) matrix \(P\) are 4 and 2, then the eigenvalues of the matrix \(P^{-1}\) are

  • (A) 0, 0
  • (B) 0.0625, 0.25
  • (C) 0.25, 0.5
  • (D) 2, 4

Question 13:

For a double-pipe heat exchanger, the inside and outside heat transfer coefficients are 100 and 200 W m\(^{-2}\) K\(^{-1}\), respectively. The thickness and thermal conductivity of the thin-walled inner pipe are 1 cm and 10 W m\(^{-1}\) K\(^{-1}\), respectively. The value of the overall heat transfer coefficient is _________ W m\(^{-2}\) K\(^{-1}\).

  • (A) 0.016
  • (B) 42.5
  • (C) 62.5
  • (D) 310

Question 14:

Match the media component (Column I) with its role (Column II).

  • (A) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 2
  • (B) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 4
  • (C) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 4, S – 1
  • (D) P – 3, Q – 4, R – 1, S – 2

Question 15:

The binding free energy of a ligand to its receptor protein is \( -11.5 \, kJ mol^{-1} \) at 300 K. What is the value of the equilibrium binding constant?

  • (A) 0.01
  • (B) 1.0
  • (C) 4.6
  • (D) 100.5

Question 16:

The overall stoichiometry for an aerobic cell growth is \( 3C_6H_{12}O_6 + 2.5 NH_3 + O_2 \rightarrow 1.5 C_a H_b O_c N_d + 3 CO_2 + 5 H_2O \).

What is the elemental composition formula of the biomass?

  • (A) \( C_9 H_{18.2} O_5 N_{1.667} \)
  • (B) \( C_9 H_{22.33} O_6 N_{1.667} \)
  • (C) \( C_{10} H_{18.2} O_5 N_{1.667} \)
  • (D) \( C_{10} H_{22.33} O_6 N_{1.667} \)

Question 17:

In binomial nomenclature, the name of a bacterial strain is written with the first letter of \underline{\hspace{2cm word(s) being capitalized.

  • (A) first
  • (B) second
  • (C) neither
  • (D) first and second

Question 18:

The type of nucleic acid present in \( \lambda \)-phage is

  • (A) Double stranded DNA
  • (B) Single stranded circular DNA
  • (C) Single stranded DNA
  • (D) Single stranded RNA

Question 19:

Which of the following statements about reversible enzyme inhibitors are CORRECT?
P. Uncompetitive inhibitors bind only to the enzyme-substrate complex.
Q. Non-competitive inhibitors bind only at a different site from the substrate.
R. Competitive inhibitors bind to the same site as the substrate.

  • (A) P and Q only
  • (B) P and R only
  • (C) Q and R only
  • (D) P, Q and R

Question 20:

Match the component of eukaryotic cells (Column I) with its respective function (Column II).

  • (A) P – 1, Q – 2, R – 3, S – 4
  • (B) P – 2, Q – 1, R – 3, S – 4
  • (C) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 4
  • (D) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 4

Question 21:

In animal cells, the endogenously produced miRNAs silence gene expression by

  • (A) base pairing with the 3'-untranslated region of specific mRNAs
  • (B) blocking mRNA synthesis
  • (C) binding to the operator site
  • (D) base pairing with the 3' region of specific rRNAs

Question 22:

Terpenoids are made of _________ units.

  • (A) amino acid
  • (B) carbohydrate
  • (C) isoprene
  • (D) triacylglycerol

Question 23:

Match the microbial product (Column I) with its respective application (Column II).

  • (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3
  • (B) P-2, Q-1, R-3
  • (C) P-3, Q-2, R-1
  • (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2

Question 24:

Which of the following is NOT used for generating an optimal alignment of two nucleotide sequences?

  • (A) Gap penalties
  • (B) Match scores
  • (C) Mismatch scores
  • (D) Nucleotide composition

Question 25:

The recognition sequences of four Type-II restriction enzymes (RE) are given below. The symbol (|) indicates the cleavage site. Identify the RE that generates sticky ends.

  • (A) RE1 - \( 5' \, G \, ATCC \, 3' \)
  • (B) RE2 - \( 5' \, CTG \, CAG \, 3' \)
  • (C) RE3 - \( 5' \, CCC \, GGG \, 3' \)
  • (D) RE4 - \( 5' \, AG \, CT \, 3' \)

Question 26:

Among individuals in a human population, minor variations exist in nucleotide sequences of chromosomes. These variations can lead to gain or loss of sites for specific restriction enzymes. Which of the following techniques is used to identify such variations?

  • (A) Polymerase dependent fragment insertion
  • (B) Real-time polymerase chain reaction
  • (C) Restriction fragment length polymorphism
  • (D) Reverse transcriptase polymerase chain reaction

Question 27:

Assuming independent assortment and no recombination, the number of different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes in gametes of an organism with a diploid number of 12 is _________.


Question 28:

A microorganism is grown in a batch culture using glucose as a carbon source. The apparent growth yield is 0.5 g biomass / g substrate. The initial concentrations of biomass and substrate are 2 g L\(^{-1}\) and 200 g L\(^{-1}\), respectively. Assuming that there is no endogenous metabolism, the maximum biomass concentration that can be achieved is _________ g L\(^{-1}\).


Question 29:

The degree of reduction of lactic acid (C\textsubscript{3}H\textsubscript{6}O\textsubscript{3}) is _________.


Question 30:

Consider a nonlinear algebraic equation, \(x\ln x + x - 1 = 0\). Using the Newton–Raphson method, with the initial guess of \(x_{0}=3\), the value of \(x\) after one iteration (rounded off to one decimal place) is _________.


Question 31:

The probability density function of a random variable \( X \) is \( p(x) = 2e^{-2x} \). The probability \( P(1 \leq X \leq 2) \) (rounded off to two decimal places) is _________ .


Question 32:

The maximum value of the function \( f(x) = 3x^2 - 2x^3 \) for \( x > 0 \) is _________ .


Question 33:

The specific growth rate of a yeast having a doubling time of 0.693 h (rounded off to nearest integer) is _________ h\textsuperscript{-1}.


Question 34:

A fermentation broth of density 1000 kg m\textsuperscript{-3} and viscosity 10\textsuperscript{-3} kg m\textsuperscript{-1} s\textsuperscript{-1} is mixed in a 100 L fermenter using a 0.1 m diameter impeller, rotating at a speed of 2 s\textsuperscript{-1}. The impeller Reynolds number is _________.


Question 35:

For a pure species, the slope of the melting line \(\dfrac{dP}{dT}\) at \(-2^{\circ}\)C is \(-5.0665\times 10^{6}\) Pa K\(^{-1}\). The difference between the molar volumes of the liquid and solid phase at \(-2^{\circ}\)C is \(-4.5\times 10^{-6}\) m\(^{3}\) mol\(^{-1}\). The value of the latent heat of fusion (rounded off to nearest integer) is _________ J mol\(^{-1}\).


Question 36:

Which of the following conditions will contribute to the stability of a gene pool in a natural population?
P. Large population
Q. No net mutation
R. Non-random mating
S. No selection

  • (A) P only
  • (B) P and Q only
  • (C) P and R only
  • (D) P, Q and S only

Question 37:

Match the media component used in mammalian cell culture (Column I) with its respective role (Column II).

  • (A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
  • (B) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
  • (C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (D) P-4, Q-3, R-2, S-1

Question 38:

Match the cell type (Column I) with its function (Column II).

  • (A) P-1, Q-2, R-3, S-4
  • (B) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
  • (C) P-4, Q-3, R-1, S-2
  • (D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4

Question 39:

A \( 2 \times 2 \) matrix \( P \) has an eigenvalue \( \lambda_1 = 2 \) with eigenvector \( x_1 = \begin{pmatrix} 1
0 \end{pmatrix} \) and another eigenvalue \( \lambda_2 = 5 \), with eigenvector \( x_2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1
1 \end{pmatrix} \). The matrix \( P \) is

  • (A) \( \begin{pmatrix} 2 & 0
    0 & 5 \end{pmatrix} \)
  • (B) \( \begin{pmatrix} 2 & 3
    0 & 5 \end{pmatrix} \)
  • (C) \( \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1
    0 & 1 \end{pmatrix} \)
  • (D) \( \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1
    1 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \)

Question 40:

Match the stationary phase (Column I) with its corresponding chromatography technique (Column II).

  • (A) P-1, Q-4, R-2, S-3
  • (B) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
  • (C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
  • (D) P-4, Q-1, R-3, S-2

Question 41:

Which of the following statements are CORRECT for a controller?

  • (A) P and Q only
  • (B) P and R only
  • (C) P and S only
  • (D) Q and S only

Question 42:

Which of the following are CORRECT about protein structure?
P. Secondary structure is formed by a repeating pattern of interactions among the polypeptide backbone atoms
Q. Tertiary structure is the three-dimensional arrangement of the polypeptide backbone atoms only
R. Quaternary structure refers to an assembly of multiple polypeptide subunits

  • (A) P and Q only
  • (B) P and R only
  • (C) Q and R only
  • (D) P, Q and R

Question 43:

The enzymes involved in ubiquitinylation of cell-cycle proteins are

  • (A) E\(_1\) and E\(_2\) only
  • (B) E\(_1\) and E\(_3\) only
  • (C) E\(_1\) and E\(_4\) only
  • (D) E\(_1\), E\(_2\) and E\(_3\)

Question 44:

The maximum parsimony method is used to construct a phylogenetic tree for a set of sequences. Which one of the following statements about the method is CORRECT?

  • (A) It predicts the tree that minimizes the steps required to generate the observed variations
  • (B) It predicts the tree that maximizes the steps required to generate the observed variations
  • (C) It predicts the tree with the least number of branch points
  • (D) It employs probability calculations to identify the tree

Question 45:

Which of the following spectroscopic technique(s) can be used to identify all the functional groups of an antibiotic contaminant in food?
P. Infrared
Q. Circular dichroism
R. Nuclear magnetic resonance
S. UV-Visible

  • (A) P only
  • (B) P and R only
  • (C) P, Q and R only
  • (D) P, Q, R and S

Question 46:

Adenine can undergo a spontaneous change to hypoxanthine in a cell, leading to a DNA base pair mismatch. The CORRECT combination of enzymes involved in repairing this damage is:

  • (A) Nuclease, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
  • (B) Nuclease, DNA ligase, helicase
  • (C) Primase, DNA polymerase, DNA ligase
  • (D) Primase, helicase, DNA polymerase

Question 47:

Consider the ordinary differential equation \(\dfrac{dy}{dx} = f(x,y) = 2x^2 - y^2\).
If \(y(1)=1\), find \(y(1.5)\) using Euler’s implicit method:
\(y_{n+1} = y_n + h f(x_{n+1}, y_{n+1})\) with step size \(h = 0.5\).

  • (A) \(-1 - 5\sqrt{0.3}\)
  • (B) \(-1 + 5\sqrt{0.3}\)
  • (C) \(1 + 5\sqrt{0.3}\)
  • (D) \(1 - 5\sqrt{0.3}\)

Question 48:

Which of the following statements are CORRECT for an enzyme entrapped in a spherical particle?

  • (A) Effectiveness factor is ratio of the reaction rate with diffusion-limitation to the reaction rate without diffusion-limitation
  • (B) Internal diffusion is rate-limiting at low values of Thiele modulus
  • (C) Effectiveness factor increases with decrease in Thiele modulus
  • (D) Internal diffusion-limitation can be reduced by decreasing the size of the particle

Question 49:

Which of the following is(are) COMMON feature(s) for both aerobic and anaerobic bacterial cultures?

  • (A) Glycolysis
  • (B) NAD\(^+\) is the oxidising agent
  • (C) Oxidative phosphorylation
  • (D) Two net ATP molecules formed per glucose molecule

Question 50:

Which of the following plot(s) is(are) CORRECT for an enzyme obeying Michaelis–Menten kinetics, assuming that [S] \(\ll K_m\)?



Question 51:

Which statement(s) is(are) CORRECT about the lac operon of E. coli when grown in the presence of glucose and lactose?

  • (A) At low glucose level, the operon is activated
  • (B) At high glucose level, the operon is activated to utilize lactose
  • (C) The lac repressor binds to operator region inactivating the operon
  • (D) Binding of lactose to the lac repressor induces the operon

Question 52:

Emerging viruses such as SARS-CoV2 cause epidemics. Which of the following process(es) contribute to the rise of such viruses?

  • (A) Mutation of existing virus
  • (B) Jumping of existing virus from current to new hosts
  • (C) Spread of virus in the new host population
  • (D) Replication of virus outside a host

Question 53:

Introduction of foreign genes into plant cells can be carried out using

  • (A) Agrobacterium
  • (B) CaCl\(_2\) mediated plasmid uptake
  • (C) Electroporation
  • (D) Gene gun

Question 54:

Which of the following statement(s) regarding trafficking in eukaryotic cells is(are) CORRECT?

  • (A) Dynamin binds GTP and is involved in vesicle budding
  • (B) Dynamin is involved in cytoskeletal remodelling
  • (C) Dynein binds ATP and is involved in movement of organelles along microtubules
  • (D) Dynein binds GTP and is involved in movement of organelles along microtubules

Question 55:

Consider a random variable \(X\) with mean \(\mu_X = 0.1\) and variance \(\sigma_X^2 = 0.2\). A new random variable \(Y = 2X + 1\) is defined. The variance of the random variable \(Y\) (rounded off to one decimal place) is _________.


Question 56:

For \(x_1 > 0\) and \(x_2 > 0\), the value of \(\displaystyle \lim_{x_1 \to x_2} \frac{x_1 - x_2}{x_2 \ln\left(\frac{x_1}{x_2}\right)}\) is _________.


Question 57:

Figure below depicts simplified metabolic and transport reactions taking place in the production of B from A in a cell. The subscript ‘i’ refers to intracellular metabolites. \(r_j\) is the \(j^{th}\) reaction flux in \(\frac{g}{(g\;dry\;mass)\;h}\). Under pseudo–steady–state condition, the following reaction fluxes are available: \(r_1 = 4,\; r_3 = 1,\; r_6 = 1\). The transport flux of B, \(r_4\), is _________ \(\frac{g}{(g\;dry\;mass)\;h}\).


Question 58:

A fed-batch operation is initiated by feeding substrate solution at 1 L h\textsuperscript{-1} containing 50 g L\textsuperscript{-1} substrate. The reactor initially contains 50 g biomass. The biomass yield \(Y_{X/S}^{M}\) is 0.4 \(\frac{g\;biomass}{g\;substrate}\). Assuming quasi-steady state, the maximum biomass after 5 h of feeding is _________ g.


Question 59:

An enzyme catalyzes the conversion of substrate A into product B. The rate equation for this reaction is \[ -r_A = \frac{C_A}{5 + C_A} \;\; mol L^{-1}min^{-1} \]
Substrate A at an initial concentration of 10 mol L\(^{-1}\) enters an ideal mixed flow reactor (MFR) at a flow rate of 10 L min\(^{-1}\). The volume of the MFR required for 50% conversion of substrate to product is _________ L.


Question 60:

Liquid-phase mass transfer coefficient (\(k_L\)) is measured in a stirred tank vessel using steady-state method by sparging air. Oxygen uptake by the microorganism is measured. The bulk concentration of O\(_2\) is \(10^{-4\) mol L\(^{-1}\). Solubility of O\(_2\) in water at 25\(^\circ\)C is \(10^{-3}\) mol L\(^{-1}\). If the oxygen consumption rate is \(9\times10^{-4}\) mol L\(^{-1}\) s\(^{-1}\), and interfacial area is 100 m\(^2\)/m\(^3\), the value of \(k_L\) is _________ cm s\(^{-1}\).


Question 61:

Consider a piston–cylinder assembly as shown. The cylinder contains 1 mole of an ideal gas at 300 K, initially held at position \(z_1\). After the stopper is removed, the piston rises suddenly against atmospheric pressure (\(1.013\times10^{5}\) Pa) to a new position \(z_2\). The cylinder walls are insulated. The heat capacity at constant volume \((C_V)\) is 12.5 J mol\textsuperscript{-1 K\textsuperscript{-1. The cross-sectional area of the cylinder is \(10^{-3}\) m\textsuperscript{2. Assume the piston is weightless and frictionless. If \(z_2 - z_1 = 1\) m, the final temperature of the gas (rounded to nearest integer) is _________ K.


Question 62:

Consider the growth of S. cerevisiae under aerobic condition in a bioreactor and the specific growth rate of yeast is 0.5 h\(^{-1}\). The overall reaction of the process is \[ 2C_6H_{12}O_6 + 0.2 NH_3 + 10.35 O_2 \to CH_{1.8} O_{0.5} N_{0.2} + 0.2 C_2 H_6 O + 10.6 CO_2 + 10.8 H_2 O \]
The heat of combustion values for different compounds are tabulated below with reference to CO\(_2\), H\(_2\)O, O\(_2\), and N\(_2\) at standard conditions.


The specific rate of heat production (rounded off to the nearest integer) is _________ kJ mol\(^{-1}\) h\(^{-1}\).


Question 63:

A pilot sterilization was carried out in a vessel containing 100 m\textsuperscript{3} medium with an initial spore concentration of 10\textsuperscript{8} spores/ml. The accepted level of contamination after sterilization is 1 spore in the entire vessel. The specific death rate constant for the spore is 2 min\textsuperscript{-1} at 121°C. Assuming no death takes place during the heating and cooling cycles, the holding time at 121°C (rounded off to nearest integer) is _________ min.


Question 64:

A circular plasmid has three different but unique restriction sites for enzymes 'a', 'b' and 'c.' When enzymes 'a' and 'b' are used together, two fragments of equal size are generated. Enzyme 'c' creates fragments of equal size only from one of the fragments generated by those cleaved by 'a' and 'b'. The plasmid is treated with a mixture of 'a', 'b' and 'c' and analysed by agarose gel electrophoresis. The number of bands observed in the gel is _________.


Question 65:

A bacterial strain is grown in nutrient medium at 37\(^\circ\)C under aerobic conditions. The medium is inoculated with \( 10^2 \) cells from a seed culture. If the number of cells in the culture is \( 10^5 \) after 10 hours of growth, the doubling time of the strain (rounded off to the nearest integer) is _________ h.



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GATE 2022 Detailed Paper Analysis

GATE 2022 Question Paper comprises three kinds of questions i.e. MCQs (Multiple Choice Questions), MSQs (Multiple Select Questions), and NATs (Numerical Answer Type) questions. Nearly 40% of the total weightage carried by MCQs. MSQs carried the least weightage in the exam. Have a look at the below-mentioned table in order to get a thorough details of the questions-

Question Types Question Frequency Carried Marks
No. Of 1 Mark MCQs 21 21
No. Of 2 Marks MCQs 16 32
No. Of 1 Mark MSQs - -
No. Of 2 Marks MSQs 8 16
No. Of 1 Mark NATs 9 9
No. Of 2 Marks NATs 11 22
Total 65 100

All the questions were basically related to 5-6 sections. Go through the below-mentioned table, showing the details of section wise listed questions-

Key Sections Weightage (Questions)
General Aptitude 10
Engineering Mathematics 10-15
Plant and Animal Biotechnology 15-20
Bioprocess Engineering 10-15
Biotechnology 20-25

Also Check:

GATE 2022 BT: Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme

  • GATE 2022 BT asked both MCQs and NATs. It was held online via CBT mode
  • As per the specified marking scheme by IIT Delhi, from the final score, ⅓ and ⅔ marks would be reduced for each wrong MCQ carried 1 and 2 marks
  • Wrong attempted NATs were not supposed to bring any kind of deduction in the final achieved marks

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