CUET UG Economics Question Paper 2025 (Available): Download Question Paper with Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 5, 2026

The CUET Economics exam in 2025 was conducted on May 27, 2025, with the question paper, answer key, and solutions available post-exam. The exam tests understanding of microeconomics, macroeconomics, market structures, national income, and economic development.

Students must attempt 50 questions in 60 minutes. The paper totals 250 marks, with +5 for each correct answer and –1 for each incorrect one.

CUET UG Economics 2025 Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET UG Economics Question Paper with Solutions PDF Download PDF Check Solutions

Question 1:

Whether to use more resources in education and health or to use more resources in building military services. Which of the central problems of an economy is accurate for this?

  • (A) How to produce?
  • (B) What to produce?
  • (C) Whom to produced?
  • (D) Where to produced?

Question 2:

The collection of all possible combinations of the goods and services that can be produced from a given amount of resources and a given stock of technological knowledge is called?

  • (A) Production Possibility Frontier
  • (B) Isoquant Curve
  • (C) Production Possibility Set
  • (D) Isocost Line

Question 3:

With the shifting demand curve leftward, arrange the following statements in sequential order:

  • (A) At any given price, demand is less.
  • (B) Excess supply will be there.
  • (C) Some producers will decrease the prices of commodity.
  • (D) At new equilibrium, quantity and price will be less.
  • (A) (B), (A), (C), (D)
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (D), (B), (C), (A)

Question 4:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(A) Analysis assumes that level of utility can be expressed in numbers (I) Cardinal Utility
(B) Change in total utility due to consumption of one additional unit of a commodity.

(II) Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

(C) Marginal utility from consuming each additional unit of a commodity declines as its consumption increases.  (III) Marginal Utility
(D) The amount of mangoes that the consumer has to forego in order to get an additional banana, her total utility level being the same. (IV) Marginal Rate of Substitution

  • (A) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
  • (B) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
  • (C) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
  • (D) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Question 5:

Budget Set is ...................

  • (A) Given the prices of the goods and the income of a consumer.
  • (B) Any bundle as long as it costs less than or equal to the income.
  • (C) A set of price available to producer.
  • (D) Set of bundles available to the consumer.

Question 6:

Find the correct statement/statements.

  • (A) Goods which are consumed together are called complementary goods.
  • (B) The market demand curve can be derived as a vertical summation of the individual demand curves.
  • (C) Price elasticity of demand is a measure of the responsiveness of the demand for a good to changes in its price.
  • (D) If the consumer’s preferences change in favor of a good, the demand curve for such a good shifts leftward.
  • (A) (A) and (C) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A) and (D) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 7:

The relation between the consumer’s optimal choice of the quantity of a good and its price is called?

  • (A) Supply Function
  • (B) Demand Function
  • (C) Cost Function
  • (D) Output Function

Question 8:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(A) Relationship between the variable input and output. (I) Average Product
(B) Output per unit of variable input. (II) Marginal Product
(C) Change in output per unit of change in the input. (III) Law of Variable Proportions
(D) The marginal product of a factor input initially rises with its employment level. (IV) Total Product
  • (A) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
  • (B) (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
  • (C) (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
  • (D) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Question 9:

In the long run ..................

  • (A) At least one of the factors varied.
  • (B) All factors of production can be varied.
  • (C) Factor remains fixed.
  • (D) Only one factor can vary.

Question 10:

The difference between the revenue and cost is known as ...............

  • (A) Cost of Production
  • (B) Input Cost
  • (C) Marginal Cost
  • (D) Profit

Question 11:

............... of an input is defined as the change in output per unit of change in the input when all other inputs remain constant.

  • (A) Marginal Product
  • (B) Average Product
  • (C) Total Product
  • (D) Returns to Scale

Question 12:

Consider the production function \(q = f(x_1, x_2)\) where the firm produces \(q\) amount of output using \(x_1\) amount of factor 1 and \(x_2\) amount of factor 2. The firm decides to increase the employment level of both factors by \(t\) (\(t > 1\)). Identify the equation for decreasing returns to scale from the following:

  • (A) \(q = f(x_1, x_2)\)
  • (B) \(f(tx_1, tx_2) = t f(x_1, x_2)\)
  • (C) \(f(tx_1, tx_2) < t f(x_1, x_2)\)
  • (D) \(f(tx_1, tx_2) > t f(x_1, x_2)\)

Question 13:

The change in total cost per unit of change in output is known as ............

  • (A) Average Cost
  • (B) Variable Cost
  • (C) Fixed Cost
  • (D) Short Run Marginal Cost

Question 14:

Shape of Average Fixed Cost (AFC) curve is ..........

  • (A) Constant
  • (B) ‘U’ Shaped
  • (C) Rectangular Hyperbola
  • (D) Reverse Hyperbola

Question 15:

Marginal cost curve intersects average cost curve at ..........

  • (A) At maximum point of average cost curve.
  • (B) At minimum point of average cost curve.
  • (C) Do not intersect.
  • (D) Intersect at mid point at rising average cost curve.

Question 16:

The point on the supply curve at which a firm earns only normal profit is called ..........

  • (A) Break-even point
  • (B) Average Profit
  • (C) Long Run Average Cost
  • (D) Fixed Cost

Question 17:

Which of the following conditions must hold for a firm to maximise its profit?

  • (A) Price = Short run marginal cost
  • (B) Short run marginal cost curve is non-decreasing
  • (C) Price \(\leq\) Marginal cost
  • (D) Price \(\geq\) Average variable cost
  • (A) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (A), (B) and (D) only

Question 18:

How does technological progress affect the firms' supply curve?

  • (A) Shift to the right.
  • (B) Shift to the left.
  • (C) Remain at same place.
  • (D) Shift in vertical shape.

Question 19:

Suppose an individual buys 30 bananas when its price is Rs.~10 per banana. When the price increases to Rs.~14 per banana, she reduces her demand to 24 bananas. In this case, what will be the price elasticity of demand?

  • (A) 0.3
  • (B) 0.2
  • (C) 0.5
  • (D) 0.4

Question 20:

Which of the following is an example of floor price?

  • (A) Minimum Support Price for Foodgrain
  • (B) Price printed on any article
  • (C) Price taken by Seller
  • (D) Price asked by buyer to buy

Question 21:

Who is the author of "The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money"?

  • (A) Adam Smith
  • (B) David Ricardo
  • (C) J.S. Mill
  • (D) John Maynard Keynes

Question 22:

If all the people of the economy increase the proportion of income they save, the total value of savings in the economy will not increase – it will either decline or remain unchanged. This result is known as ......

  • (A) Multiplier Mechanism
  • (B) Paradox of Thrift
  • (C) Deficient Demand
  • (D) Investment

Question 23:

To measure consumer price index (CPI) which of the following years are taken into consideration?

  • (A) Current Year.
  • (B) Preceding Year.
  • (C) Base Year.
  • (D) Succeeding Year.
  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 24:

The index of prices of a given basket of commodities which are bought by the representative consumer is known as:

  • (A) Consumer Price Index
  • (B) Wholesale Price Index
  • (C) Capital Good Index
  • (D) Inflation

Question 25:

Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
(A) Gross Domestic Product at Market Price (I) NDPMP – Net Product Taxes – Net Production Taxes
(B) Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (II) GVA at basic prices – Net Production Taxes
(C) GVA (Gross Value Added) at factor cost (III) C + I + G + (X – M)
(D) Gross National Product at Factor Cost (IV) GNPMP – Net Product Taxes – Net Production Taxes
  • (A) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
  • (B) (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
  • (C) (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
  • (D) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Question 26:

When goods and services are evaluated at constant prices, the measured value is known as ........

  • (A) Nominal GDP
  • (B) Inventory
  • (C) Inflation
  • (D) Real GDP

Question 27:

Among the following, which are the functions of money?

  • (A) Medium of exchange.
  • (B) Unit of account.
  • (C) Bartering.
  • (D) Store of value.
  • (A) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (B) (A), (B) and (C) only
  • (C) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
  • (D) (B), (C) and (D) only

Question 28:

Money deposited in the banks are considered __________ of the banks.

  • (A) Asset
  • (B) Net Worth
  • (C) Liabilities
  • (D) Statutory Liquid Ratio

Question 29:

Match List-I with List-II

List – I List – II
(A) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) (I) Central Bank of the Country
(B) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) (II) The interest rate at which the money is lent by Central Bank
(C) Lender of last resort (III) Percentage of deposits which must be kept as cash reserves with the Central Bank
(D) Repo Rate (IV) Reserves in liquid form in the short term
  • (A) (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
  • (B) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
  • (C) (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
  • (D) (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

Question 30:

Currency notes and coins are called:

  • (A) Fiat Money
  • (B) Broad Money
  • (C) Currency Base
  • (D) Narrow Money

Question 31:

Ex-post is depicted by which of the following ........

  • (A) What actually has happened.
  • (B) What actually will happen?
  • (C) What is actually planned?
  • (D) What should plan be.

Question 32:

When governments intervene in the market to expand or reduce the demand, this course of action is ........

  • (A) Allocative Function
  • (B) Distribution Function
  • (C) Stabilization Function
  • (D) Fiscal Function

Question 33:

The difference between the value of exports and the value of imports of goods of a country in a given period of time is known as by what name?

  • (A) Balance of Trade
  • (B) Balance of Payment
  • (C) Capital Account Deficit
  • (D) Net Invisibles

Question 34:

Arrange the following steps of estimation of National Income by income method in the proper sequence:

  • (A) Identification and classification of producing firms.
  • (B) Estimation of NDPFC.
  • (C) Estimation of NNPFC.
  • (D) Classification of factor income.
  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (C) (A), (D), (B), (C)
  • (D) (A), (B), (D), (C)

Question 35:

Arrange the following conditions from most to least liquid form:

  • (A) Currency + Demand Deposit + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks.
  • (B) Currency + Demand Deposit + Net time deposits of commercial banks + Total deposits with Post Office savings organizations.
  • (C) Currency + Demand Deposit.
  • (D) Currency + Demand Deposit + Net time deposits of commercial banks.
  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 36:

Suppose an Indian manufacturer of steel acquires a steel manufacturing unit in Europe. This type of transactions are recorded in which of the following?

  • (A) Current Account
  • (B) Capital Account
  • (C) Capital Market
  • (D) Net Invisibles

Question 37:

In deficit condition of Balance of Payment if the central bank sells foreign exchange then this particular transaction is known as ........

  • (A) Official reserve sale
  • (B) Portfolio Investment
  • (C) Net Invisibles
  • (D) Net factor income

Question 38:

When an individual buys foreign goods, this spending is known as ........

  • (A) Injection in the economy
  • (B) Exchange rate market
  • (C) Leakages from economy
  • (D) Direct investment

Question 39:

With keeping tax rate (T) constant if government purchases (G) increase, then arrange the following statements considering the effect on total income and output:

  • (A) Rise in Plan Aggregate expenditure.
  • (B) Government runs a deficit when G exceeds T.
  • (C) Equilibrium income level increased.
  • (D) Aggregate demand schedule shifts upward.
  • (A) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (C) (A), (B), (D), (C)
  • (D) (C), (B), (D), (A)

Question 40:

Arrange the following steps of calculation of National Income in sequence:

  • (A) Deduction of intermediate cost
  • (B) Estimation of value of output
  • (C) Add net factor income from abroad
  • (D) Deduction of depreciation and NIT
  • (A) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (B) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (C) (B), (A), (D), (C)
  • (D) (C), (D), (A), (B)

Passage – Output and Employment

The equilibrium output in the economy also determines the level of employment, given the quantities of other factors of production (think of a production function at aggregate level). This means that the level of output determined by the equality of Y with AD does not necessarily mean the level of output at which everyone is employed. Full employment level of income is that level of income where all the factors of production are fully employed in the production process. Recall that equilibrium attained at the point of equality of Y (Income) and AD by itself does not signify full employment of resources. Equilibrium only means that, if left to itself, the level of income in the economy will not change even when there is unemployment in the economy.

The equilibrium level of output may be more or less than the full employment level of output. If it is less than the full employment of output, it is due to the fact that demand is not enough to employ all factors of production. This situation is called the situation of deficient demand. It leads to a decline in prices in the long run. On the other hand, if the equilibrium level of output is more than the full employment level, it is due to the fact that the demand is more than the level of output produced at full employment level. This situation is called the situation of excess demand. It will lead to a rise in prices in the long run.

Question 41:

Level of employment is determined by which of the following?

  • (A) Output Equilibrium
  • (B) Factor of Production
  • (C) Capital Employed
  • (D) Availability of Raw Material

Question 42:

Full employment level is the level where ........

  • (A) Everyone in the economy got employment
  • (B) Maximum Capital investment
  • (C) All the factors of production are fully employed in the production process
  • (D) Excessive Demand

Question 43:

The level of output is determined by the ......

  • (A) Full Employment
  • (B) Excessive Demand
  • (C) Marginal Output
  • (D) Equality of Income (Y) with Aggregate Demand (AD)

Question 44:

If output equilibrium is less than the full employment level, then this condition is known as:

  • (A) Deficient Demand
  • (B) Constant Demand
  • (C) Marginal Demand
  • (D) Aggregate Demand

Question 45:

Excess demand is the situation where ......

  • (A) Output level is less than the full employment level
  • (B) Output level is equal to the full employment level
  • (C) Demand is more than output level at full employment level
  • (D) Output level is marginally increasing

Passage – GST: One Nation, One Tax, One Market

Goods and Service Tax (GST) is the single comprehensive indirect tax, operational from 1 July 2017, on supply of goods and services, right from the manufacturer/service provider to the consumer. It is a destination-based consumption tax with facility of Input Tax Credit in the supply chain. It is applicable throughout the country with one rate for one type of goods/service. It has amalgamated a large number of Central and State taxes and cesses. It has replaced large number of taxes on goods and services levied on production/sale of goods or provision of service.

As there have been a number of intermediate goods/services, which were manufactured/provided in the economy, the pre-GST tax regime imposed taxes not on the value added at each stage but on the total value of the commodity/service with minimal facility of utilisation of Input Tax Credit (ITC). The total value included taxes paid on intermediate goods/services. This amounted to cascading of tax. Under GST, the tax is discharged at every stage of supply and the credit of tax paid at the previous stage is available for set off at the next stage of supply of goods and/or services. It is thus effectively a tax on value addition at each stage of supply.

In view of our large and fast-growing economy, it addresses to establish parity in taxation across the country, and extend principles of ‘value-added taxation’ to all goods and services. It has replaced various types of taxes/cesses, levied by the Central and State/UT Governments. Some of the major taxes that were levied by Centre were Central Excise Duty, Service Tax, Central Sales Tax, Cesses like KKC and SBC. The major State taxes were VAT/Sales Tax, Entry Tax, Luxury Tax, Octroi, Entertainment Tax, Taxes on Advertisements, Taxes on Lottery/Betting/Gambling, State Cesses on goods etc. These have been subsumed in GST.

Question 46:

Goods & Services Tax (GST) is which of the following type of tax?

  • (A) Destination Based Tax
  • (B) Direct Tax
  • (C) Local Tax
  • (D) Lump Sum Tax

Question 47:

Which of the following feature of GST removes/reduces the cascading effect?

  • (A) Destination Based Tax
  • (B) Unified Tax
  • (C) Input Tax Credit (ITC)
  • (D) Unified Market

Question 48:

GST is the amalgamation of which of the following taxes?

  • (A) All Central taxes
  • (B) All State taxes
  • (C) Large number of central and state indirect taxes
  • (D) Large number of central direct taxes

Question 49:

From the following which product has been kept out from the GST ambit?

  • (A) Gold
  • (B) Silver
  • (C) Luxury Consumables
  • (D) Tobacco

Question 50:

Why GST is considered as unified tax system?

  • (A) Because it is combination of multiple taxes.
  • (B) Because now country have only GST as indirect tax.
  • (C) Because it brought uniformity in tax rate across the country.
  • (D) Because it is a simple tax.
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