CUET Home Science Question Paper 2024 (Available)- Download Solutions and Answer Key pdf

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 13, 2026

CUET Home Science Question Paper 2024 is available here. NTA conducted CUET 2024 Home Science paper on 22 May in Shift 2. CUET Home Science Question Paper 2024 is based on objective-type questions (MCQs). Candidates get 45 minutes to solve 40 MCQs out of 50 in CUET 2024 question paper for Home Science.

CUET Home Science Question Paper 2024 PDF Download

CUET 2024 Home Science​ Question Paper with Solution download icon Download Check Solution

CUET Home Science Question Paper with Solution

Question 1.
Identify the type of processed foods prepared by mixing and processing of individual ingredients resulting in relatively shelf-stable food products.
  • (1) Formulated foods
  • (2) Food derivatives
  • (3) Functional foods
  • (4) Medical foods

Question 2.
Which among the following are physical hazards present in foods?
  • (A) Stones
  • (B) Pesticide residues
  • (C) Match sticks
  • (D) Stems and seeds
  • (E) Veterinary residues

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (D) only
  • (2) (B), (D), (E) only
  • (3) (A), (B), (E) only
  • (4) (A), (C), (E) only

Question 3.
Mr. X sells gol gappas/pani puri and bhel puri in an urban slum of Delhi. Identify the type of food service system.
  • (1) Conventional food service system
  • (2) Assembly-service system
  • (3) Ready-prepared food service system
  • (4) Commissary food service system

Question 4.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Nutrition Programmes)

  • (A) Saksham Anganwadi (ICDS)
  • (B) PM POSHAN (Mid Day Meal Programme)
  • (C) Antodaya Anna Yojana
  • (D) NIDDCP

List-II (Type/aim of Nutrition Programmes)

  • (I) Nutrient Deficiency Control Programme
  • (II) Food Security Programme
  • (III) Outreach programme for ECC
  • (IV) Food Supplementation Programme

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-III, (D)-IV
  • (2) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (3) (A)-II, (B)-III, (C)-IV, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II

Question 5.
Which among the following is NOT the personal skill required to pursue career in the food service industry?
  • (1) Interest in food and regular update of trends in national and international cuisines
  • (2) Communication and negotiation skill
  • (3) Good leadership and regular update in food safety and hygiene
  • (4) Arithmetic and algebra knowledge professionally

Question 6.
______ is the set of methods and techniques used to transform raw ingredients into finished and semi-finished food products.
  • (1) Food Science
  • (2) Food Processing
  • (3) Food Technology
  • (4) Food Manufacturing

Question 7.
Which of the following statement is incorrect in the context of HACCP?
  • (1) Enables to detect hazards at any stage of processing or manufacture
  • (2) Enables producers, processors, distributors and exporters to utilise resources efficiently and in a cost-effective manner for assuring food safety
  • (3) Promote the development of standardisation and related activities in the world with a view to facilitate the international exchange of goods and services
  • (4) Assures consistently good quality products

Question 8.
Children whose families are not traceable, or are unfit/dead or simply unwilling to take the child back stay in:
  • (1) Observation homes
  • (2) Special homes
  • (3) Adoption homes
  • (4) Children homes

Question 9.
In India, the first SOS village was set up in which year?
  • (1) 1961
  • (2) 1962
  • (3) 1964
  • (4) 1963

Question 10.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Name of the Programme/Scheme/Initiative)

  • (A) The National Service Volunteer Scheme (NSVS)
  • (B) NSS
  • (C) Multi-Service Centres for Older Persons
  • (D) SOS Children's Villages

List-II (Objective)

  • (I) Provide a family approach to the long-term care of orphaned and abandoned children
  • (II) Provide day-care, educational and entertainment opportunities, healthcare, companionship
  • (III) Provides opportunities to students (who have completed their studies) to involve themselves on a whole-time basis for a short period of one or two years in programmes of national development
  • (IV) Aims at involving college level students in programmes of social service and national development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (2) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (3) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-IV

Question 11.
Which of the following programmes in India provides medical care to the older persons living in backward and backward areas?
  • (1) Respite Care Homes
  • (2) Continuous Care Homes
  • (3) Multi-Service Centres for Older Persons
  • (4) Mobile Medicare Units

Question 12.
Which among the following is NOT the condition that affects communication, social interaction and play behaviour?
  • (1) Cerebral Palsy
  • (2) Autism
  • (3) ADHD
  • (4) None of these
Correct Answer: (1) Cerebral Palsy
View Solution

Cerebral palsy primarily affects motor function and muscle coordination. While it may impact communication secondarily, it is not categorized mainly under conditions like autism or ADHD, which directly impact communication and social behavior.

Autism and ADHD are neurodevelopmental disorders that directly impact social and communication skills.

Question 13.
The most commonly used term to refer to the density of knitted fabric measured by the weight of the given area is:
  • (1) Ends per Inch (EPI)
  • (2) Picks per Inch (PPI)
  • (3) Grams per Square Metre (GSM)
  • (4) Thread Count
Correct Answer: (3) Grams per Square Metre (GSM)
View Solution

GSM (Grams per Square Metre) is the standard unit to measure fabric density, especially for knitted and woven fabrics. Higher GSM indicates heavier, thicker fabric.

GSM is key in textiles to compare fabric weights across different types and uses.

Question 14.
Arrange the stages of fashion cycle in correct order:
  • (A) Increase in popularity
  • (B) Introduction of a style
  • (C) Peak of popularity
  • (D) Decline in popularity
  • (E) Obsolescence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (B), (C), (D), (A), (E)
  • (2) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)
  • (3) (B), (D), (C), (E), (A)
  • (4) (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)

Question 15.
Identify the given standardisation mark:ISI mark image
  • (1) ISI
  • (2) FPO
  • (3) Hallmark
  • (4) AGMARK

Question 16.
Which of the following is NOT a consumer responsibility?
  • (1) Consumer should read all the information given on the brochure/label
  • (2) Consumer should be honest in all their dealings and must pay for all their purchases
  • (3) Consumer should keep receipts and relevant documents of purchase
  • (4) Consumer should avoid buying products with standardisation marks

Question 17.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Fabric Defects)

  • (A) Slub
  • (B) Misreed
  • (C) Shaded
  • (D) Baggy

List-II (Source of Faults)

  • (I) Weaving fault
  • (II) Yarn fault
  • (III) Dyeing fault
  • (IV) Finishing fault

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-III, (D)-IV
  • (2) (A)-II, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-I
  • (3) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-IV, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-I

Question 18.
Ms. K is fond of wearing hot pants, baggy pants and unmatched buttons. Which among the following concepts has she been following?
  • (1) Classic
  • (2) Style
  • (3) Fads
  • (4) Fashion

Question 19.
Preeti is wearing a red dress with green flowers on it. Which colour scheme is represented in her dress?
  • (1) Analogous colour scheme
  • (2) Complementary colour scheme
  • (3) Monochromatic colour scheme
  • (4) Split complementary colour scheme

Question 20.
Arrange the specific methods and procedures of special education in correct order of their implementation:
  • (A) Undertaking regular evaluation of the Individualised Education Programme
  • (B) Facilitating all inclusion, access and use of support services
  • (C) Developing Individualised Education Programme for each student
  • (D) Assessing the child’s/student’s level in different areas of development

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (2) (D), (C), (B), (A)
  • (3) (B), (C), (A), (D)
  • (4) (C), (D), (A), (B)

Question 21.
Which of the following is the correct answer for the given sequence?

Sorry, no full question text is visible for Q21 in the image above. Please upload the missing content or question so I can help with it.


Question 22.
Which stage of Guest Cycle is focused on 'Guest Satisfaction and Customer Loyalty'?
  • (1) Pre-arrival stage
  • (2) Arrival stage
  • (3) Occupancy
  • (4) Departure

Question 25.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Type of Media)

  • (A) Print
  • (B) Interactive
  • (C) Out of home
  • (D) Broadcast

List-II (Example)

  • (I) Television
  • (II) Internet
  • (III) Poster
  • (IV) Magazine

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-IV, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-I
  • (2) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
  • (3) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II
  • (4) (A)-II, (B)-IV, (C)-III, (D)-I

Question 26.
As a function of Human Resource Management, the systematic development of attitudes, knowledge, skills required by a person to perform a given task or job adequately is termed as:
  • (1) Training
  • (2) Development
  • (3) Appraisal
  • (4) Retention

Question 27.
Whom among the following is head of the kitchen, and is responsible for planning, organising and controlling the kitchen operations?
  • (1) Kitchen stewarding
  • (2) Chef-de-cuisine
  • (3) Restaurant manager
  • (4) Chef-de-parties

Question 28.
Which among the following personnel in the front office is responsible for determining shifts of the employees, welcoming guests and ensuring all arrivals ensuring accurate and speedy rooming procedure as well as checking occupancy?
  • (1) Front Office Supervisor
  • (2) Assistant Manager - Front Office
  • (3) Lobby Manager
  • (4) Receptionist

Question 29.
Identify the major functions of Human Resource/Talent Management:
  • (A) Gain knowledge about the goals of the company
  • (B) Recruiting and staffing
  • (C) Managing back office departments
  • (D) Training and developing employees
  • (E) Retention and Reversal

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (B), (D), (E) only
  • (2) (B), (C), (D) only
  • (3) (A), (D), (E) only
  • (4) (A), (C), (D) only

Question 30.
Arrange the following housekeeping department personnel in top to bottom hierarchical order, below the level of executive housekeeper:
  • (A) Assistant Housekeeper
  • (B) Housemen
  • (C) Public Area Supervisor
  • (D) Head Housemen

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (C), (D), (B)
  • (2) (C), (A), (B), (D)
  • (3) (C), (A), (D), (B)
  • (4) (A), (D), (B), (C)

Question 31.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Types of Hospitality Establishment)

  • (A) Hotel
  • (B) Lodge
  • (C) Resort
  • (D) Furnished camps

List-II (Services)

  • (I) Offers lodging, meals
  • (II) Offers range of amenities, sports facilities and leisure activities
  • (III) Offers rented accommodation especially for sleeping but may not offer food
  • (IV) Hospitality to people undertaking adventure sports etc.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-IV, (D)-II
  • (2) (A)-II, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-III
  • (3) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II

Question 32.
Which of the following is NOT an example of a consumer problem regarding inadequate or erroneous information given by the manufacturer?
  • (1) Labels not factually correct, deceptive and misleading
  • (2) Incorrect weights and measures
  • (3) Non-informative advertisements
  • (4) Lack of buying guides to aid the consumer in decision-making

Question 33.
Arrange the steps of nutritional care during illness in correct sequence:
  • (A) Assessing nutritional status
  • (B) Diagnosis of nutritional problems
  • (C) Planning and prioritising nutrition intervention(s) to meet nutritional needs
  • (D) Monitoring and evaluating nutritional care outcomes and making changes, if necessary

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B), (C), (D)
  • (2) (A), (C), (B), (D)
  • (3) (B), (C), (A), (D)
  • (4) (A), (D), (C), (B)

Question 34.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Consumer Organisation)

  • (A) Consumer Union
  • (B) VOICE
  • (C) Australian Consumer Association
  • (D) CERC

List-II (Publication)

  • (I) Consumer Voice
  • (II) Insight
  • (III) Consumer Report
  • (IV) Choice

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-III, (B)-I, (C)-IV, (D)-II
  • (2) (A)-I, (B)-II, (C)-III, (D)-IV
  • (3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II

Question 35.
Match List-I with List-II:

List-I (Medium of Communication)

  • (A) Educational Satellite
  • (B) Television
  • (C) ICTs
  • (D) Print Media

List-II (Development Communication Initiatives)

  • (I) Project Village Chhatera
  • (II) Sustainable Access in Rural India
  • (III) Kyunki Jeena Isi Ka Naam Hai
  • (IV) EDUSAT

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A)-III, (B)-II, (C)-IV, (D)-I
  • (2) (A)-I, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-IV
  • (3) (A)-IV, (B)-III, (C)-II, (D)-I
  • (4) (A)-III, (B)-IV, (C)-I, (D)-II

Question 36.
A brief 10 – 60 second message between programmes, generally in the form of jingles, is called as:
  • (1) Public Social Advertisement
  • (2) Public-Social Media Communication
  • (3) Public Service Announcement
  • (4) Participatory Service Announcement

Question 37.
Which among the following is a combination of different communication methods and materials about a theme for a predefined period of time?
  • (1) Radio programming
  • (2) Campaign
  • (3) Networking
  • (4) Counselling

Question 38.
Which newspaper published a regular fortnightly column describing the lives of the people of a small village named Chhatera in Northwest Delhi under the Project Village Chhatera?
  • (1) The Times of India
  • (2) The Indian Express
  • (3) The Hindustan Times
  • (4) The Hindu

Question 39.
Who among the following comprehended and explained that young children have different ways of understanding the world, due to which they need a supportive environment?
  • (1) Jean Piaget
  • (2) Lev Vygotsky
  • (3) Sigmund Freud
  • (4) Erik Erikson

Question 40.
Ms. Y purchased a geyser, which got burst when she switched it on. Which consumer right of hers is violated in this case?
  • (1) Right to be informed
  • (2) Right to choose
  • (3) Right to safety
  • (4) Right to be heard

Question 41.
Which method of washing is used in front loading machine?
  • (1) Agitating
  • (2) Tumbling
  • (3) Pulsation
  • (4) Friction

Question 42.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

There are two types of institutions which have in-house laundry and maintenance setups i.e. within their organisation. These are hotels and hospitals. Both have a large quantity of bed linen and other room furnishing requirements as also staff uniforms and accessories such as aprons, caps, head dresses and masks.

The hospital laundry takes care of hygiene, cleanliness and disinfection. However, a number of hospitals have started using disposables where there is a threat of infection, which are then destroyed by burning. In the hospitality sector i.e. for hotel and restaurants, aesthetics and final finish of the articles are most important. As compared to hospitals, the articles here may be of different blend or fiber content. Final finishing of laundered goods, i.e. starching, ironing, pressing and correct and perfect folding, are emphasized. They also have to take care of guests’ personal laundry when required. The smaller hotels may have link ups with commercial laundries from outside.

Which fabric is used for hospital clothing?
  • (1) Synthetic
  • (2) Silk
  • (3) Cotton
  • (4) Rayon

Question 43.
Which sector lays stress on aesthetics and finishes of the articles?
  • (1) Hospital
  • (2) Hostel
  • (3) Hotel
  • (4) Prison

Question 44.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

There are two types of institutions which have in-house laundry and maintenance setups i.e. within their organisation. These are hotels and hospitals. Both have a large quantum of bed linen and other room furnishing requirements as also staff uniforms and accessories such as aprons, caps, head dresses and masks.

The hospital laundry takes care of hygiene, cleanliness and disinfection. However, a number of hospitals have started using disposables where there is a threat of infection, which are then destroyed by burning. In the hospitality sector i.e. for hotel and restaurants, aesthetics and final finish of the articles are most important. As compared to hospitals, the articles here may be of different blend or fiber content. Final finishing of laundered goods, i.e. starching, ironing, pressing and correct and perfect folding, are emphasized. They also have to take care of guests’ personal laundry when required. The smaller hotels may have link ups with commercial laundries from outside.

How many types of institutions have in-house laundry and maintenance set-ups?
  • (1) Four
  • (2) Two
  • (3) Three
  • (4) Five

Question 45.
Which of the following methods can be applied for disinfecting laundry in hospitals?
  • (A) Use of disposables
  • (B) Use of anti-bacterial finishes on garments
  • (C) Use of disinfectants
  • (D) Use of chemicals and high temperature washing

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) (A), (B) and (D) only
  • (2) (A), (C) and (D) only
  • (3) (B), (C) and (D) only
  • (4) (A), (B), (C) and (D)

Question 46.
Read the following passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

There are two types of institutions which have in-house laundry and maintenance setups i.e. within their organisation. These are hotels and hospitals. Both have a large quantum of bed linen and other room furnishing requirements as also staff uniforms and accessories such as aprons, caps, head dresses and masks.

The hospital laundry takes care of hygiene, cleanliness and disinfection. However, a number of hospitals have started using disposables where there is a threat of infection, which are then destroyed by burning. In the hospitality sector i.e. for hotel and restaurants, aesthetics and final finish of the articles are most important. As compared to hospitals, the articles here may be of different blend or fiber content. Final finishing of laundered goods, i.e. starching, ironing, pressing and correct and perfect folding, are emphasized. They also have to take care of guests’ personal laundry when required. The smaller hotels may have link ups with commercial laundries from outside.

Which of the following statement is NOT correct with regard to in-house laundry set-ups?
  • (1) They exist within the organisation
  • (2) They are responsible for washing organisational laundry only
  • (3) They also provide final finishing to laundered garments
  • (4) They have link ups with commercial laundries

Question 47.
Read the passage carefully and answer the question based on it:

RRE was a nationwide communication campaign for generating awareness about HIV/AIDS. The aim of the campaign was to spread information regarding impact, prevention, treatment services, proper usage of condoms and available support to HIV/AIDS patients. It also addressed stigma associated with AIDS and enable people to respond through preventive measures, health habits and lifestyle.

A specially designed train traveled over 9000 km across 180 towns / districts / halting locations and held programs in more than 4300 villages. It comprised of coaches converted into exhibition rooms, and held street plays, folk performances and 3-D models, services in the context of HIV-TB co-infection, anti-retroviral treatment, stigma and discrimination, condom usage and NACO services.

RRE started its journey from Kanyakumari, followed the ‘parkarma’ style and halted at 180 stations and covered the most backward areas. During the halts, station staff, safai workers and nearby villagers participated in the awareness drives. Efforts were undertaken to interlink communication activities such as street plays with those carried by village councils like panchayats.

The RRE project was supported by National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO), Nehru Yuva Sangathan (NYKS), UNICEF and UNAIDS in co-operation with Indian Railways.

What was the focus area of Red Ribbon Express campaign?
  • (1) Maternal and child health
  • (2) Immunisation
  • (3) HIV/AIDS
  • (4) Promotion of Literacy

Question 48.
Read the passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

RRE was a nationwide communication campaign for generating awareness about HIV/AIDS. The aim of the campaign was to spread information regarding primary prevention services, develop an understanding of the disease, reduce the stigma and discrimination against people with AIDS and enhance people’s knowledge about the preventive measures, health habits and lifestyle.

A specially designed train traveled over 9000 km across 180 towns / districts / halt stations, and held programmes in more than 4300 villages. It comprised of seven coaches, equipped with educational material, interactive touch screens and 3-D models, services in the context of HIV-TB co-infection, an LCD Projector and folk performances, counselling cabins and two doctor’s cabins for providing counseling and treatment.

RRE started its journey from Kanyakumari, followed the ‘parikrama’ style and halted at 180 stations and covered almost all states of India. During the halts, station staff, performing artists including actors and performers went to different villages to undertake information communication activities such as street plays, folk songs, stories and group counselling sessions.

The project was implemented by National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO), Nehru Yuva Sangathan (NYKS), UNICEF and UNAIDS in co-operation with Indian Railways.

Which of the following is NOT an objective of Red Ribbon Express initiative?
  • (1) To reduce stigma and discrimination against people with AIDS
  • (2) To provide an umbrella of health services related to nutrition and care only to youth
  • (3) To enhance knowledge of people about preventive measures, health habits and lifestyle
  • (4) To spread awareness regarding primary prevention services

Question 49.
What is the full form of NACO?
  • (1) National AIDS Co-operative Organisation
  • (2) National Alliance Control Organisation
  • (3) National AIDS Co-ordination Organisation
  • (4) National AIDS Control Organisation

Question 50.
Read the passage carefully and answer the question based on the passage:

RRE was a nationwide communication campaign for generating awareness about HIV/AIDS. The aim of the campaign was to spread information regarding primary prevention services, develop an understanding of the disease, reduce stigma and discrimination against people with AIDS and enhance people’s knowledge about the preventive measures, health habits and lifestyle.

A specially designed train traveled over 9000 km a year covering 180 districts/halt stations, and held programmes and activities in 43,200 villages. It comprised of seven coaches, equipped with educational material, interactive touch screens and 3-D models, services in the context of HIV-TB co-infection, an LCD Projector and platform for folk performances, counselling cabins and two doctors’ cabins for providing counselling and treatment.

RRE started its journey from Kanyakumari, followed the ‘parikrama’ style and halted at 180 stations and covered almost all the states of India. During the halt at each station, performing artists including actors and performers went to different villages to undertake information communication activities such as street plays, folk songs, stories and group counselling sessions.

The project was implemented by National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO), Nehru Yuva Sangathan (NYKS), UNICEF and UNAIDS in co-operation with Indian Railways.

How many coaches were installed in the Red Ribbon Express?
  • (1) 5
  • (2) 7
  • (3) 8
  • (4) 10




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