CUET 2023 Answer Key Environmental Studies- Download Slot-wise Answer Key with Solutions PDF

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Shivam Yadav

Updated on - Jan 14, 2026

CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Answer Key for all shifts is made available for download here. NTA to release CUET Answer Key 2023 PDF for Environmental Studies soon on cuet.samarth.ac.in. Download CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Question Paper PDF

Candidates can download the answer key and question paper PDFs for CUET UG 2023 Environmental Studies exam using the links given below.

CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Answer Key and Question Paper with Solutions PDF

CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Question Paper with Answer Key download icon Download Check Solution
CUET 2023 Environmental Studies

CUET 2023 Environmental Studies Questions with Solutions

Question 1:

The Green Politics (Germany) is known to have the following pillars:

A. Ecological Wisdom

B. Free Trade

C. Social Justice

D. Grassroot democracy

E. Non-violence

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B, and E only
  • (2) B, C, and D only
  • (3) A, B, C, and D only
  • (4) A, C, D, and E only

Question 2:

Match List I with List II:
LIST I (Author)             LIST II (Book)
A. Barry Commoner   I. Turtle Island
B. Gary Snyder           II. The Poverty of Power
C. Rachel Carson       III. A Place on Earth
D. Wendell Berry        IV. Silent Spring

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
  • (3) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Question 3:

A practice of reserving resources for future generations without causing harm to the nature and other components of nature is a part of:

  • (1) Deep Ecology
  • (2) Shallow Ecology
  • (3) Socialist Ecology
  • (4) Sustainable Development

Question 4:

The National award in the name of Amrita Devi Bishnoi is given in the field of:

  • (1) Water Conservation
  • (2) Wildlife Conservation
  • (3) Solid Waste Management
  • (4) Land Conservation

Question 5:

Greenpeace Organisation was founded in the year ___ and in ___.

  • (1) 1971 and Canada
  • (2) 1975 and Germany
  • (3) 1971 and United States of America
  • (4) 1975 and Switzerland

Question 6:

Organism which can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of salinities are known as:

  • (1) Stenohaline
  • (2) Thermohaline
  • (3) Eurihaline
  • (4) Oligohaline

Question 7:

The statement "Populations evolve in the habitat in which they live to maximise their reproductive fitness" is representative of:

  • (1) Lamarckian fitness
  • (2) Darwinian fitness
  • (3) Mendelian fitness
  • (4) Extreme fitness

Question 8:

Arrange the phases of logistics population growth from starting from 1st to last:

A. Plateau phase

B. Exponential phase

C. Positive Acceleration phase

D. Lag phase

E. Negative Acceleration phase

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) C, B, D, E, A
  • (2) D, B, E, A, C
  • (3) C, D, A, B, E
  • (4) D, C, B, E, A

Question 9:

Match List I with List II:
LIST I (Organisms)         LIST II (Interaction) 
A. Fig tree and wasp      I. Commensalism
B. Orchid and mango     II. Parasitism
C. Cuscuta and hedge   III. Mutualism
D. Cow and grass          IV. Predation

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) C-IV, B-I, D-II, A-III
  • (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
  • (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

Question 10:

Arrange the following biomes in increasing order of mean annual precipitation.

A. Tropical forest

B. Grassland

C. Desert

D. Temperate forest

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) C, B, D, A
  • (2) C, D, B, A
  • (3) D, C, B, A
  • (4) D, C, A, B

Question 11:

Which of the following is not a part of 'In situ' Biodiversity conservation?

  • (1) Botanical gardens
  • (2) Biosphere reserves
  • (3) National parks
  • (4) Reserve forests

Question 12:

Arrange the following in increasing order on the basis of total amount of energy consumed at each trophic level per unit area per unit time:

A. Producer

B. Primary consumer

C. Secondary consumer

D. Tertiary consumer

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A <\( B <\) C \(<\) D
  • (2) C \(<\) D \(<\) B \(<\) A
  • (3) D \(<\) C \(<\) B \(<\) A
  • (4) D \(<\) C \(<\) A \(<\) B

Question 13:

Which of the following gas is an indoor air pollutant?

  • (1) Nitrogen dioxide
  • (2) Radon
  • (3) Sulfur dioxide
  • (4) Carbon dioxide

Question 14:

The acceptable range of pH in drinking water as per Bureau of Indian Standards is:

  • (1) 7.0 to 9.0
  • (2) 6.5 to 8.5
  • (3) 6.5 to 7.5
  • (4) 4.6 to 8.0

Question 15:

Which of the following are responsible for eutrophication in water bodies?

  • (1) Calcium and magnesium
  • (2) Calcium and phosphorous
  • (3) Nitrogen and phosphorous
  • (4) Calcium and nitrogen

Question 16:

Match List I with List II

List I                                                       List II 
Environmental accidents                     Year
A.   Chernobyl nuclear disaster          I. 1948
B.   Bhopal Gas Tragedy                     II. 1952
C.   Donora air pollution                     III. 1984
D.  The great smog of London           IV. 1986


Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
  • (2) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
  • (3) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
  • (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

Question 17:

Particle size of the medium 'Sand' lies between:

  • (1) 0.25 - 0.10 mm
  • (2) 0.50 - 0.25 mm
  • (3) 1.00 - 0.50 mm
  • (4) 0.10 - 0.05 mm

Question 18:

Arrange the biotic and abiotic components of aquatic food chain on the basis of biomagnification of DDT.

A. Fish eating birds

B. Water

C. Large fish

D. Zooplankton

E. Small fish

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B, D, C, E, A
  • (2) A, C, B, E, D
  • (3) A, C, E, B, D
  • (4) B, D, E, C, A

Question 19:

Which of the following measurement is equivalent to 100 ppb?

  • (1) 1 ppm
  • (2) 10 mg/L
  • (3) 0.1 ppm
  • (4) 1 mg/L

Question 20:

Legume crops enrich the soil fertility by:

  • (1) Potassium fixation
  • (2) Phosphorous fixation
  • (3) Nitrogen fixation
  • (4) Sulphur fixation

Question 21:

High concentration of Nitrate in drinking water can cause.

A.Minamata disease

B.Blue baby syndrome disease

C.Itai-Itai disease

D.Methaemoglobinaemia disease

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A and D only
  • (2) B and D only
  • (3) A and C only
  • (4) B and C only

Question 22:

Which one of the following theory talks of labour flow from low wage areas to high wage area due to geographic labour demand and supply?

  • (1) The New Economics of Labour Migration Theory
  • (2) Dual Labour Market Theory
  • (3) World System Theory
  • (4) Neoclassical Economic Theory

Question 23:

Which of the following is not a push factor for human migration?

  • (1) Lack of jobs
  • (2) Civil war
  • (3) Political stability
  • (4) Natural calamities

Question 24:

The acronym "OECD" stands for:

  • (1) Organisation for Energy Cooperation and Development
  • (2) Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development
  • (3) Organisation for Environmental Cooperation and Development
  • (4) Organisation for Entrepreneurship Cooperation and Development

Question 25:

Secondary treatment of sewage water:

A.Removes solid particles and debris

B.Removes dissolved and suspended biological matter

C.Involves conventional sedimentation and filtration

D.Reduces the bio-chemical oxygen demand of water

E.Increases the bio-chemical oxygen demand of water

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A,B and D only
  • (2) B and E only
  • (3) B and D only
  • (4) A,C and E only

Question 26:

Which one of the following is Non-thermal technology for 'waste to energy' conversion?

  • (1) Pyrolysis
  • (2) Mechanical biological treatment
  • (3) Thermal depolymerisation
  • (4) Plasma arc gasification

Question 27:

Sarvodaya movement was intended to promote self-sufficiency amongst India’s rural population by:

A. Encouraging land distribution

B. Centralized governance

C. Socio-economic reform

D. Promoting large industries

E. Promoting cottage industries

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and E only
  • (2) A, C and E only
  • (3) B, C and D only
  • (4) A, D and E only

Question 28:

Report of World Commission of Environment and Development (WCED) is known as:

  • (1) United Nation Report
  • (2) World Commission Report
  • (3) Brundtland Report
  • (4) Sustainable Development Report

Question 29:

A rainwater harvesting practice to collect water flowing from glaciers in Laddakh is called as:

  • (1) Pynes
  • (2) Zings
  • (3) Katts
  • (4) Khadins

Question 30:

Which of the following is not a basic element of the green revolution?

  • (1) Use of native variety of crop
  • (2) Expansion of existing farmland
  • (3) Double cropping in existing farmland
  • (4) Use of high yield variety (HYV)

Question 31:

The cropping season of Zaid crop is:

  • (1) July - September months
  • (2) October - December months
  • (3) January - March months
  • (4) April - June months

Question 32:

The slash and burn agriculture (shifting cultivation) practised in Indonesia and Malaysia is referred to as

  • (1) Jhumming
  • (2) Ladang
  • (3) Milpa
  • (4) Nadis

Question 33:

In context of food security, the factors responsible for food crisis and increase in prices of food grains are:

A. Global population boom

B. Climate change

C. Increased farming of biofuels and non-edible items

D. Sustainable agricultural practices

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and C only
  • (2) A, C and D only
  • (3) B, C and D only
  • (4) A, B, C and D

Question 34:

Following is NOT a characteristic of ‘Resource’ in Environmental Economics:

  • (1) Utility
  • (2) Limited availability
  • (3) Consumption
  • (4) Unlimited abundance

Question 35:

The natural reservoir of phosphorus in soils/sediments is:

  • (1) Ocean
  • (2) Air
  • (3) Rocks
  • (4) Plants

Question 36:

‘Shifting to electrical vehicles will reduce emissions of greenhouse gases.’ This statement is an example of:

  • (1) Negative Production Externality
  • (2) Positive Production Externality
  • (3) Negative Consumption Externality
  • (4) Positive Consumption Externality

Question 37:

The world’s stock of natural resources which creates long supply of goods and services is referred to as:

  • (1) Human capital
  • (2) Social capital
  • (3) Natural capital
  • (4) Manufacturing capital

Question 38:

The systematic approach to estimate the strength and weakness of activities or functional requirement considering both direct and indirect values is known as:

  • (1) Cost Benefit Analysis
  • (2) Risk Benefit Analysis
  • (3) Integrated Benefit Analysis
  • (4) Relative Cost Assessment

Question 39:

Most of the weather-related phenomena on Earth's surface takes place in:

  • (1) Troposphere
  • (2) Stratosphere
  • (3) Mesosphere
  • (4) Thermosphere

Question 40:

Match List I with List II

LIST I                                                 LIST II
Convention                           Protocol Objective

A. The Bamako         I. To control international exportation of toxic waste
B. The Basel             II. Reducing production and usage of ozone depletion substances
C. Kyoto                    III. Ban on import of hazardous waste into Africa
D. Montreal               IV. Reduction in Green-house gases emissions

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
  • (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

Question 41:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

The author seems to be surprised often comparing certain species of which of the following two regions?

  • (1) India and Britain
  • (2) Brazil and India
  • (3) Britain and Brazil
  • (4) Brazil and Canada

Question 42:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

Which of the following conclusions has the author drawn?

  • (1) There is less variation in biodiversity of fresh-water species
  • (2) Biodiversity of fresh-water species is greater than that of marine species
  • (3) Biodiversity is greater in lakes as compared to river systems
  • (4) There is a wide variation in biodiversity of fresh water species

Question 43:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

Which of the following species, the author most likely studied as per the given passage?

  • (1) Insects
  • (2) Blue whale
  • (3) Star fish
  • (4) Wrasses

Question 44:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

Which of the following has been cited in the passage as a possible reason to support the hypothesis of narrow range of fresh water species biodiversity?

  • (1) Over hunting
  • (2) Sexual incompatibility
  • (3) Water pollution
  • (4) Sea barrier

Question 45:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

Lakes and river systems are separated from each other by barriers of land. It might have been thought that
fresh water productions would not have ranged widely within the same country, and as the sea is apparently a
still more impassable barrier, that they never would have extended to distant countries. But the case is exactly
the reverse. Not only have fresh-water species, belonging to quite different classes, an enormous range, but
allied species have also prevailed in a remarkable manner throughout the world. I well remember, while first
collecting the fresh-waters of Brazil, feeling much surprise at the similarity of the fresh-water insects, shells,
etc. and at the dissimilarity of the surrounding terrestrial beings, compared with those of Britain.

Which of the following captures the essence of the given passage most appropriately?

  • (1) Water pollution
  • (2) Biodiversity
  • (3) Fisheries
  • (4) Aqua-culture

Question 46:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Present day problem of climate change is NOT primarily due to:

  • (1) Increase in biomass burning
  • (2) Increase in fossil fuel combustion
  • (3) Increase in volcanic activities
  • (4) Increase in greenhouse gas emissions

Question 47:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Climate change related impacts could lead to:

  • (1) Better life standard in developing countries
  • (2) Sustained economic development
  • (3) Displacement of a large people
  • (4) Decrease in the spread of diseases

Question 48:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Which of the following gases contribute maximally to global warming?

  • (1) N\textsubscript{2}O
  • (2) CFCs
  • (3) CO\textsubscript{2}
  • (4) O\textsubscript{3}

Question 49:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Which of the following gas is NOT responsible for anthropogenic global warming?

  • (1) CO\textsubscript{2}
  • (2) CH\textsubscript{4}
  • (3) NO\textsubscript{2}
  • (4) N\textsubscript{2}O

Question 50:

Read the following passage and answer the question:

The global average surface temperature has increased by approximately 0.8° C over the last century. Many
countries have experienced increase in rainfall, particularly in those situated in the mid to high latitudes. In
some regions, the frequency and intensity of droughts have increased in recent decades. All these are signs of
climate change, which making it more difficult for mankind survival. Projections of future climate change
have predicted that the global mean surface temperature will rise by 1.4° C to 5.8° C. The frequency of
weather extremes is likely to increase. Global mean sea level is projected to rise by 9 to 88 cm by the year
2100. Changes in climate may affect the distribution of vector species which in turn will increase the spread of
diseases, such as malaria and filariasis, to new areas which lack a strong public health infrastructure.

Climate change does NOT lead to:

  • (1) Salt water intrusion in coastal aquifer
  • (2) Geopolitical dispute
  • (3) Spread of vector-borne diseases
  • (4) Increase in solar activity of sun

Question 51:

Which of the following statements are correct?

A. Exception Handling can be done for only user-defined exceptions but not for built-in exceptions.

B. In python exception handling, else clause is optional.

C. Try statement in python must have a finally clause.

D. Statements in finally clause are always executed regardless of whether an exception has occurred in try block or not.

E. Except block will be executed only if some exception is raised in try block.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and D only
  • (2) D and E only
  • (3) C, D and E only
  • (4) B, D and E only
Correct Answer: (4) B, D and E only
View Solution

- Statement A is incorrect because Python handles both built-in and user-defined exceptions.

- Statement B is correct: the `else` clause is optional.

- Statement C is incorrect: a `finally` clause is optional.

- Statement D is correct: the `finally` block always executes.

- Statement E is correct: the `except` block only runs if an exception occurs. Quick Tip: Remember: try-except-finally is flexible—`finally` is optional, but if present, it always executes.


Question 52:

____ is raised when the index in a sequence is out of range.

  • (1) ImportError
  • (2) IndexError
  • (3) TypeError
  • (4) EOFError
Correct Answer: (2) IndexError
View Solution

`IndexError` is raised in Python when you try to access an index that is outside the bounds of a list, tuple, or string. The other options relate to different kinds of errors (e.g., import issues, type mismatches, or unexpected end-of-file). Quick Tip: Accessing a non-existent element in a sequence? Think `IndexError`!


Question 53:

seek(1) method in files used for:

  • (1) Sets the file's current position at the offset
  • (2) Sets the file's previous position at the offset
  • (3) Sets the file's current position within the file
  • (4) Tells you the file is opened or not
Correct Answer: (1) Sets the file's current position at the offset
View Solution

The `seek(offset)` method in Python sets the file’s current position at the specified offset. It is commonly used to navigate to a specific byte within a file for reading or writing. Quick Tip: `seek()` = reposition the file pointer. `seek(1)` means go to position 1 in the file.


Question 54:

Which of the following statements are true with respect to append \textless a\textgreater\ mode?

A. The user can read the file in \textless a\textgreater\ mode.

B. If the file is opened in \textless a\textgreater\ mode and the file doesn’t exist, then it will create a new file.

C. The user can write at the end of existing file when file is opened in \textless a\textgreater\ mode.

D. \textless a\textgreater\ mode is the default mode.

E. If the file is opened in \textless a\textgreater\ mode, the file offset position returned in the End of the file.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A, B and C only
  • (2) A, B, C and E only
  • (3) A, B and D only
  • (4) B, C and E only
Correct Answer: (4) B, C and E only
View Solution

- A is incorrect: `` mode is for writing; to read, `` is needed.

- B is correct: `
` will create the file if it doesn’t exist.

- C is correct: it writes only at the end.

- D is incorrect: `'r'` is the default mode.

- E is correct: in append mode, writes occur at the file’s end. Quick Tip: Append (`a`) mode = always writes at the end. Read not allowed unless using `a+`.


Question 55:

Database schema is the ____ of a database.

  • (1) Application
  • (2) Design
  • (3) Use case
  • (4) Testing
Correct Answer: (2) Design
View Solution

A database schema defines the structure or design of a database, including tables, fields, relationships, constraints, and more. It represents the logical configuration of all or part of a relational database. Quick Tip: Think of a schema as a blueprint—it lays out how data is organized and how relationships work.


Question 56:

Consider the following relation:


STUDENT
RollNumber   Name   Class   DateofBirth  Address

What should be the primary key for relation STUDENT?

  • (1) Class
  • (2) RollNumber
  • (3) DateofBirth
  • (4) Address
Correct Answer: (2) RollNumber
View Solution

The primary key is a unique identifier for records in a table. "RollNumber" is unique for every student and serves as the most appropriate primary key in this case. Quick Tip: Primary keys must be unique and not null. "RollNumber" fits both criteria.


Question 57:

Consider the following statements relating to database:

A. Composite primary key is used to represent the relationship between two relations.

B. A foreign key is used to represent the relationship between two relations.

C. The tuples within a relation must be distinct.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) B and C are false
  • (2) A and B are false
  • (3) B and C are true
  • (4) A and C are true
Correct Answer: (3) B and C are true
View Solution

- Statement A is false: Composite primary keys uniquely identify a row within a relation, not necessarily define relationships between relations.

- Statement B is true: Foreign keys are used to establish relationships between tables.

- Statement C is true: Tuples (rows) in a relational table must be unique. Quick Tip: Composite keys identify records, foreign keys connect tables, and tuples must always be unique.


Question 58:

Give output of:

Select Round (765.3895, 2)

will return:

  • (1) 765.38
  • (2) 765.30
  • (3) 765.00
  • (4) 765.39
Correct Answer: (4) 765.39
View Solution

The SQL `ROUND()` function rounds a numeric field to the number of decimal places specified. `ROUND(765.3895, 2)` rounds the number to two decimal places. Since the third decimal digit is 9 (greater than 5), it rounds up from 765.38 to 765.39. Quick Tip: Pay close attention to the digit following the rounding precision—it determines the final value.


Question 59:

Vardan was asked by his teacher the meaning of the following command. He is not able to decide on the correct answer. Help him in selecting the correct answer.

Select * from stud where admn like '%5%5%';

  • (1) admn begins with two 5s
  • (2) admn has two 5s in it at any position
  • (3) admn ends with two 5s
  • (4) admn should have more than two 5s
Correct Answer: (2) admn has two 5s in it at any position
View Solution

The `LIKE '%5%5%'` SQL command searches for any string where two '5's appear in order, but not necessarily consecutively—they just need to appear somewhere in the value with any characters (including none) in between. Hence, it means the value contains two '5's in any position. Quick Tip: `%` in SQL represents any sequence of characters. `%5%5%` ensures at least two '5's appear somewhere.


Question 60:

Let us consider two relations HISTORY and SCIENCE as depicted in the following Tables 1 and 2 respectively:

Table 1: HISTORY

SNo  NAME   CLASS
1      MOHAN   6A
2     SANJAY   6B
3     YOGESH  7A

Table 2: SCIENCE

SNo    NAME   CLASS
1       NARESH    6B
2       SANJAY     6B
3       YOGESH    7A

What is the output of HISTORY - SCIENCE?

  • (1) SNo  NAME   CLASS
           1   MOHAN   6A
  • (2) SNo   NAME   CLASS
           1   MOHAN   6A
           2  SANJAY    6B
          3  YOGESH   7A
  • (3) SNo   NAME   CLASS
          1   NARESH   6B
          2    SANJAY   6B
          3    YOGESH  7A
  • (4) SNo   NAME   CLASS
          1    NARESH   6B
Correct Answer:

(1)

SNo   NAME   CLASS
  1   MOHAN     6A

View Solution

The set operation `HISTORY - SCIENCE` returns the tuples that are present in the HISTORY table but not in the SCIENCE table. Comparing rows, only the tuple (MOHAN, 6A) is unique to HISTORY. SANJAY and YOGESH are present in both, so they are excluded. Quick Tip: Set difference in databases means: “what’s in the first table but not in the second.” Watch for exact matches!


Question 61:

Match List I with List II

LIST I                LIST II
A. Alter             I. Change the name of the column
B. Update         II. Create a database
C. Delete          III. Update existing information in a table
D. Create         IV. Delete an existing row from table

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
  • (2) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
  • (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
  • (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
Correct Answer: (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
View Solution

- ALTER is used to modify the structure of a table, such as renaming a column → I.

- UPDATE is for changing values in existing records → III.

- DELETE removes records (rows) from a table → IV.

- CREATE initializes new objects like tables or databases → II. Quick Tip: Match SQL commands based on their function keywords: alter (structure), update (data), delete (rows), create (objects).


Question 62:

The ____ is the largest WAN that connects billions of computers, smartphones and millions of LAN from different Continents.

  • (1) Internet
  • (2) Intranet
  • (3) Subnet
  • (4) Supernet
Correct Answer: (1) Internet
View Solution

The Internet is the world's largest Wide Area Network (WAN), enabling connectivity between billions of devices and networks globally. Intranet is a private network; subnet is a smaller division of an IP network; supernetting aggregates multiple networks. Quick Tip: If the question says “largest WAN”, the answer is always the Internet—no other choice scales globally.


Question 63:

Who invented the WWW?

  • (1) Berners Lee
  • (2) Charls Lee
  • (3) Bill Gate
  • (4) Donald Smith
Correct Answer: (1) Berners Lee
View Solution

Tim Berners-Lee, a British computer scientist, invented the World Wide Web (WWW) in 1989 while working at CERN. He developed the first web browser and web server, enabling global communication via the internet. Quick Tip: Tim Berners-Lee = WWW inventor. Remember the initials: TBL → The Browser Legend.


Question 64:

Consider the following statements relating to network device repeater:

A. It is an analog device.

B. It regenerates the received signals.

C. It enables signals to travel longer distances over a network.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

  • (1) A is false
  • (2) B is false
  • (3) All A, B and C are true
  • (4) A is true and B is false
Correct Answer: (1) A is false
View Solution

Repeaters are digital devices, not analog. They regenerate and amplify the digital signal to prevent loss over long distances, ensuring signal integrity in large networks. Quick Tip: Repeaters = digital regenerators, not analog amplifiers. B and C are true.


Question 65:

Which of the following is a network device?

  • (1) Laptop
  • (2) Repeater
  • (3) Monitor
  • (4) Printer
Correct Answer: (2) Repeater
View Solution

A repeater is a network device used to regenerate and amplify signals in a network, allowing data to travel longer distances without degradation. Laptops, monitors, and printers are end-user devices, not part of network infrastructure. Quick Tip: Repeaters help extend network range—classic example of a network device.



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