AP ECET 2026 Pharmacy Question Paper: Download Answer Key with Solution PDF

_________ is a natural colouring agent.

• (A) Tartrazine
• (B) Sunset yellow
• (C) Caramel
• (D) Erythrosine

Which of the following is a salient feature of Indian Pharmacopoeia?

• (A) Includes only herbal drugs
• (B) Provides legally enforceable standards
• (C) Applies only to hospital pharmacies
• (D) Published annually

What is the major limitation of plastic containers in pharmaceutical packaging?

• (A) High cost
• (B) Prone for damage
• (C) Brittleness
• (D) Interaction with drugs by sorption

Which packaging material provides the best protection against moisture and gases?

• (A) Plastic
• (B) Paper
• (C) Metal
• (D) Rubber

Which of the following preservatives is most effective in acidic pH?

• (A) Benzyl alcohol
• (B) Sodium benzoate
• (C) Chlorobutanol
• (D) Phenol

Membrane filters remove particles mainly by _________.

• (A) Size exclusion
• (B) Chemical reaction
• (C) Adsorption
• (D) Sedimentation

Freeze drying is also called _________ drying.

• (A) Tray
• (B) Drum
• (C) Spray
• (D) Sublimation

Which mill is most suitable for grinding hard and abrasive materials?

• (A) Hammer mill
• (B) Ball mill
• (C) Roller mill
• (D) Cutter mill

A cyclone separator would be least efficient for separation of _________ particles.

• (A) Large
• (B) Dense
• (C) Very fine
• (D) Coarse

In pharmaceutical mixing, segregation is most likely to occur when _________.

• (A) Particles have similar size
• (B) Particles differ widely in size and density
• (C) Liquid binders are used
• (D) Homogenizers are used

Silverson mixer is mainly used for _________.

• (A) High shear homogenization
• (B) Dry powder mixing
• (C) Filtration
• (D) Drying

A dry powder suspension for reconstitution is prepared mainly to _________.

• (A) Improve taste
• (B) Increase shelf life
• (C) Increase viscosity
• (D) Improve color

Multi-layered tablets are designed mainly to _________.

• (A) Increase weight
• (B) Improve patient acceptance
• (C) Separate incompatible drugs or control release
• (D) Reduce cost

_________ route is used for administration of pessaries.

• (A) Vaginal
• (B) Rectal
• (C) Nasal
• (D) Pulmonary

Sera are used to provide _________.

• (A) Passive immunity
• (B) Active immunity
• (C) Long-term protection
• (D) No immunity

A drug unstable to heat but stable to moisture should be dried by _________ drying.

• (A) Tray
• (B) Fluidized bed
• (C) Freeze
• (D) Drum

A highly potent low-dose drug requires which mixing equipment for content uniformity?

• (A) Double cone blender
• (B) Sigma mixer
• (C) Turbine mixer
• (D) Fluidized bed dryer

A drug meant for immediate nasal absorption must be formulated to be _________.

• (A) Hypotonic
• (B) Hypertonic
• (C) Isotonic
• (D) Acidic

A suspension shows rapid sedimentation due to particle size. Which unit operation before formulation would improve stability?

• (A) Filtration
• (B) Extraction
• (C) Drying
• (D) Size reduction

A drug requiring prolonged action but low dose variation should be formulated as _________.

• (A) Fast dissolving tablet
• (B) Sustained release tablet
• (C) Effervescent tablet
• (D) Chewable tablet

An eye drop formulation with poor corneal contact time would be benefited by _________.

• (A) Increasing tonicity
• (B) Increasing pH
• (C) Lowering pH
• (D) Increasing viscosity

Quality assurance (QA) differs from quality control because QA focuses on _________.

• (A) Testing finished products
• (B) Rejecting batches
• (C) Building quality into processes
• (D) Calibrating instruments

A pharmaceutical plant layout designed to minimize cross-contamination should follow _________.

• (A) Random workflow
• (B) Unidirectional material flow
• (C) Multidirectional material flow
• (D) Centralized storage

Soft gelatin capsules require plasticizers more compared to hard gelatin capsules for _________.

• (A) Preventing oxidation of fill material
• (B) Improving drug solubility
• (C) Enhancing disintegration in gastric fluid
• (D) Maintaining shell flexibility at low moisture equilibrium

Hard gelatin capsules stored at \(<20%\) RH will _________.

• (A) Become brittle and crack
• (B) Shrink
• (C) Stick together
• (D) Disintegration time increases

Which excipient is most unsuitable in nasal insufflations due to mucosal irritation?

• (A) Lactose
• (B) Dextrose
• (C) Talc
• (D) Starch

In fusion method of effervescent granule preparation, granulation occurs due to _________.

• (A) Addition of water
• (B) Release of water of crystallization from citric acid
• (C) Melting of sodium bicarbonate
• (D) Carbon dioxide formation

Large volume parenterals (LVPs) must be free from preservatives because _________.

• (A) They alter pH
• (B) They cause precipitation
• (C) Toxicity risk due to large dose
• (D) They reduce sterility

In percolation, the term menstruum refers to _________.

• (A) Residual plant material
• (B) Extracted active principle
• (C) Solvent used for extraction
• (D) Final concentrated product

What is the most important function of the Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee?

• (A) Purchase medicines
• (B) Approve drug promotion
• (C) Select and monitor medicines for formulary
• (D) Dispense medicines

What is the main use of reserved antibiotics?

• (A) Treat minor infections
• (B) Prevent emergence of resistance
• (C) Increase hospital revenue
• (D) Treat severe multidrug-resistant infections

Narcotic and psychotropic drugs in hospital pharmacy must be _________.

• (A) Kept on open shelves
• (B) Stored with general medicines
• (C) Kept in double-lock system
• (D) Stored in refrigerator

ICU drug distribution requires special control because of _________.

• (A) Large quantity
• (B) Complex therapy
• (C) Low patient load
• (D) High-risk and emergency drugs

Long-term tendering is preferred over short-term purchase mainly to _________.

• (A) Increase storage
• (B) Reduce cost and ensure continuous supply
• (C) Reduce paperwork
• (D) Improve quality control

Economic Order Quantity aims to minimize _________.

• (A) Total ordering and carrying cost
• (B) Drug expiry
• (C) Theft
• (D) Transportation

What is the advantage of ice lined refrigerator over domestic one in a hospital?

• (A) Cost effective
• (B) Larger size
• (C) Consumes less power
• (D) Maintains uniform temperature

When FEFO method is preferred over FIFO?

• (A) Drug cost is high
• (B) Variation in shelf life
• (C) Drugs are narcotics
• (D) Storage is small

What is the disposal process of expired cytotoxic drugs?

• (A) Flushing in drain
• (B) Municipal garbage
• (C) Incineration
• (D) Recycling

Unit dose drug distribution reduces _________.

• (A) Drug errors
• (B) Drug cost
• (C) Drug storage
• (D) Staff requirement

Physical incompatibility in intravenous admixture results in _________.

• (A) Colour change
• (B) Precipitation
• (C) Loss of sterility
• (D) Toxicity

Radiopharmaceuticals must be stored in _________.

• (A) Glass bottles
• (B) Plastic trays
• (C) Open shelves
• (D) Lead-lined containers

The minimum qualification required for registration as a pharmacist is prescribed by _________.

• (A) State Pharmacy Council
• (B) Medical Council
• (C) Education Regulations framed by PCI
• (D) CDSCO

Under Pharmacy Practice Regulations-2015, patient counselling is _________.

• (A) Optional
• (B) Only for Schedule X drugs
• (C) Only for hospital pharmacists
• (D) Mandatory professional duty

Loan license means _________.

• (A) Manufacturing without factory
• (B) Manufacturing using another licensee's facilities
• (C) Selling imported drugs manufactured by other companies outside India
• (D) Manufacturing by taking bank loan

Schedule X drugs sale requires _________.

• (A) No prescription
• (B) Duplicate prescription and special register
• (C) Oral order
• (D) Only hospital purchase order

Possession of narcotic drugs without authorization leads to _________.

• (A) Fine only
• (B) License cancellation
• (C) Warning
• (D) Imprisonment and fine

Poison sale requires _________.

• (A) Oral permission
• (B) Medical certificate
• (C) Police license
• (D) Entry in poison register

National Pharmaceutical Pricing Authority fixes price of drugs listed in _________.

• (A) Schedule X
• (B) NLEM
• (C) Schedule C
• (D) Schedule C1

Medical termination of pregnancy is permitted _________.

• (A) Anytime
• (B) Only after police approval
• (C) Only after marriage
• (D) Under specified conditions and gestational limits

CDSCO is responsible for _________.

• (A) Drug price fixation
• (B) Drug approval and regulation
• (C) Pharmacy education
• (D) Pharmacist registration

In Gutzeit test, _________ reacts with mercuric chloride paper and produces _________ colour stain.

• (A) Arsenious acid; yellow
• (B) Arsine; orange
• (C) Arsenious acid; orange
• (D) Arsine; yellow

Green vitriol is chemically known as

• (A) Copper sulphate
• (B) Zinc sulphate
• (C) Ferrous sulphate
• (D) Ferric chloride

Deficiency of _________ ion in blood leads to metabolic acidosis.

• (A) Sodium
• (B) Potassium
• (C) Bicarbonate
• (D) Chloride

Lugol's solution contains _______ % iodine and _______ % potassium iodide.

• (A) 1; 2
• (B) 2; 1
• (C) 10; 5
• (D) 5; 10

_________ acts as an antimicrobial agent by halogenation mechanism.

• (A) Hydrogen peroxide
• (B) Chlorine
• (C) Potassium permanganate
• (D) Boric acid

Oxygen filled cylinder is painted in _________ colour for hospital use.

• (A) Blue
• (B) Grey
• (C) White
• (D) Black

Chemically epsom salt is _________ sulphate.

• (A) Sodium
• (B) Magnesium
• (C) Potassium
• (D) Calcium

Rochelle salt is chemically _________.

• (A) Sodium potassium chloride
• (B) Sodium potassium tartrate
• (C) Potassium sodium sulphate
• (D) Sodium potassium carbonate

In limit test for iron, _________ is used to prevent precipitation of iron by ammonia.

• (A) Thioglycolic acid
• (B) Ferric ammonium sulphate
• (C) Citric acid
• (D) Potassium chloride

Which substance is mainly used in treating alkaloidal poisoning?

• (A) Sodium nitrate
• (B) Sodium thiosulphate
• (C) Kaolin
• (D) Activated charcoal

_________ is required for carbohydrate and protein metabolism.

• (A) Magnesium
• (B) Calcium
• (C) Sodium
• (D) Potassium

Which of the following is an example for non-reducing sugar?

• (A) Glucose
• (B) Fructose
• (C) Sucrose
• (D) Lactose

Ketoses are distinguished by which of the following test?

• (A) Molisch test
• (B) Bial's test
• (C) Seliwanoff's test
• (D) Benedict test

Citric acid cycle takes place in _________.

• (A) Cytoplasm
• (B) Nucleus
• (C) Mitochondria
• (D) Ribosome

The end product of glycolysis under aerobic condition is _________.

• (A) Lactic acid
• (B) Pyruvic acid
• (C) Acetyl CoA
• (D) Citric acid

The vitamin required for blood coagulation is _________.

• (A) Vitamin A
• (B) Vitamin B
• (C) Vitamin C
• (D) Vitamin K

Deficiency of vitamin C causes _________.

• (A) Rickets
• (B) Scurvy
• (C) Beriberi
• (D) Night blindness

The biological catalyst present in living cells is called _________.

• (A) Hormone
• (B) Enzyme
• (C) Vitamin
• (D) Mineral

The protein part of an enzyme is called _________.

• (A) Apoenzyme
• (B) Coenzyme
• (C) Holoenzyme
• (D) Cofactor

The process of conversion of glucose to glycogen is called _________.

• (A) Glycolysis
• (B) Glycogenesis
• (C) Glycogenolysis
• (D) Gluconeogenesis

The confirmatory test for bile pigments in urine is:

• (A) Hay's test
• (B) Benedict's test
• (C) Fouchet's test
• (D) Rothera's test

Normal haemoglobin level in adult male is _________ g/dL.

• (A) \(8-10\)
• (B) \(10-12\)
• (C) \(13-17\)
• (D) \(18-22\)

Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?

• (A) Vitamin A
• (B) Vitamin D
• (C) Vitamin E
• (D) Vitamin K

Bilirubin level helps in measuring the function of _________.

• (A) Liver
• (B) Heart
• (C) Kidney
• (D) Lung

Wilson disease is due to excess of _________.

• (A) Copper
• (B) Zinc
• (C) Calcium
• (D) Sodium

Chloroquine contains chlorine at _________ position.

• (A) \(2^{nd}\)
• (B) \(4^{th}\)
• (C) \(7^{th}\)
• (D) \(8^{th}\)

Ibuprofen belongs to which chemical class?

• (A) Salicylates
• (B) Aryl propionic acid derivatives
• (C) Indole acetic acids
• (D) Fenamate derivatives

Amlodipine contains _________ ring system.

• (A) Piperidine
• (B) Phenothiazine
• (C) Pyrimidine
• (D) Dihydropyridine

Chemically aspirin is _________.

• (A) Salicylic acid
• (B) Acetyl salicylamide
• (C) Acetyl salicylic acid
• (D) Benzoic acid

Penicillin contains which core ring system?

• (A) Thiazole ring
• (B) \(\beta\)-lactam ring
• (C) Imidazole ring
• (D) Pyridine ring

Morphine is chemically classified as

• (A) Synthetic opioid
• (B) Semi-synthetic opioid
• (C) Natural phenanthrene alkaloid
• (D) Benzyl isoquinoline alkaloid

Chlorpromazine belongs to which chemical class?

• (A) Phenothiazines
• (B) Thioxanthenes
• (C) Benzodiazepines
• (D) Butyrophenones

Ciprofloxacin belongs to which chemical class?

• (A) Sulphonamides
• (B) Fluoroquinolones
• (C) Cephalosporins
• (D) Macrolides

Diazepam contains which heterocyclic ring?

• (A) Imidazole
• (B) Triazole
• (C) Thiazole
• (D) Benzodiazepine

The chemical class of propranolol is _________.

• (A) Phenoxyalkylamine
• (B) Aryloxypropanolamine
• (C) Imidazoline
• (D) Benzyl amine

What is the core skeleton of tetracycline antibiotics?

• (A) Four fused benzene rings
• (B) Macrocyclic lactone
• (C) Quinoline nucleus
• (D) Phenothiazine nucleus

Glibenclamide belongs to which chemical class?

• (A) Biguanide
• (B) Thiazolidinedione
• (C) Sulfonylurea
• (D) Meglitinide

Which syndrome is most likely associated with aspirin in children with influenza fever?

• (A) Reye's syndrome
• (B) Stevens--Johnson syndrome
• (C) Cushing's syndrome
• (D) Guillain--Barré syndrome

_________ class of antihypertensive drugs is contraindicated due to teratogenic effects on the fetus in pregnant women with hypertension.

• (A) Thiazide diuretics
• (B) Beta blockers
• (C) ACE inhibitors
• (D) Calcium channel blockers

A patient is started on isoniazid as part of antitubercular therapy. Vitamin _________ should be given prophylactically to prevent the common adverse effect of this drug.

• (A) K
• (B) C
• (C) A
• (D) B\(_6\)

A 30-year-old asthmatic patient needs a drug for acute bronchospasm relief. Which agent is most appropriate for rapid bronchodilation?

• (A) Inhaled beclomethasone
• (B) Inhaled salbutamol (albuterol)
• (C) Inhaled ipratropium as monotherapy in a young asthmatic
• (D) Oral theophylline

Which of the following drugs irreversibly inhibits the \(H^+/K^+\)-ATPase pump in gastric parietal cells used to treat peptic ulcer disease?

• (A) Misoprostol
• (B) Ranitidine
• (C) Sucralfate
• (D) Omeprazole

Which oral drug is the first-line treatment in most newly diagnosed type 2 diabetes patients who are overweight?

• (A) Metformin
• (B) Acarbose
• (C) Glibenclamide
• (D) Sitagliptin

_________ drug is mostly considered as first-line therapy for uncomplicated urinary tract infection (UTI) in a young, non-pregnant woman.

• (A) Gentamicin injection
• (B) Nitrofurantoin
• (C) Amoxicillin
• (D) Ciprofloxacin

HIV viral RNA is converted to proviral DNA using enzyme?

• (A) Helicase
• (B) Proteinase
• (C) Integrase
• (D) Reverse transcriptase

Which of the following drug is not a disease modifying anti rheumatic drug (DMARD)?

• (A) Methotrexate
• (B) Cyclophosphamide
• (C) Ibuprofen
• (D) Infliximab

Which drug would be most appropriate for providing both long-term asthma control and relief of allergic rhinitis symptoms?

• (A) Oral theophylline
• (B) Ipratropium bromide inhaler
• (C) Salbutamol inhaler
• (D) Montelukast

Which of the following antiepileptic drug is associated with a particularly high risk of neural tube defects?

• (A) Valproic acid
• (B) Lamotrigine
• (C) Levetiracetam
• (D) Low dose carbamazepine

The most appropriate drug suitable as first-line pharmacotherapy for diabetic peripheral neuropathic pain is _________.

• (A) Aspirin
• (B) Pregabalin
• (C) Ibuprofen
• (D) Acetaminophen

The mechanism of action of methimazole used to treat hyperthyroidism is

• (A) It blocks the release of stored thyroid hormone from the gland.
• (B) It replaces deficient thyroid hormone in the bloodstream.
• (C) It inhibits thyroid peroxidase, reducing synthesis of thyroid hormones.
• (D) It destroys thyroid tissue through radiation.

Presence of transverse markings and reticulate vessels is a characteristic pharmacognostic feature of

• (A) Castor seed
• (B) Senna leaf
• (C) Ispaghula husk
• (D) Aloe

The swelling index is a specific evaluation parameter mainly used for quality control of

• (A) Senna
• (B) Aloe
• (C) Ispaghula
• (D) Digitalis

Which diagnostic identification test is used for anthraquinone glycosides present in senna?

• (A) Keller--Killiani test
• (B) Borntrager's test
• (C) Shinoda test
• (D) Foam test

Digitalis leaves should be collected during which season?

• (A) Before flowering stage
• (B) During flowering stage
• (C) After flowering stage
• (D) During fruiting stage

The major pharmacognostic feature of Terminalia arjuna bark is the presence of _________.

• (A) Resin ducts
• (B) Abundant calcium oxalate crystals and sclereids
• (C) Latex vessels
• (D) Oil glands

The pungent principle of ginger falls in the category of

• (A) Alkaloid
• (B) Gum
• (C) Oleoresin
• (D) Tannin

The presence of _________ is responsible for the characteristic aroma of clove.

• (A) Tannins in cortex
• (B) Alkaloids in pith
• (C) Fixed oil in endosperm
• (D) Volatile oil in oil glands

Asafoetida is pharmacognostically identified as _________.

• (A) Dried rhizome
• (B) Dried latex exudate
• (C) Seed oil
• (D) Bark resin

The presence of nicotine-like stimulant action with methyl xanthines is associated with

• (A) Theobroma coca
• (B) Ephedra sinica
• (C) Atropa belladonna
• (D) Camellia sinensis

An epidemic is defined as

• (A) Constant presence of disease in a population
• (B) Worldwide spread of disease
• (C) Sudden increase in disease cases above expected level
• (D) Occurrence of rare disease

The antihypertensive activity of Rauwolfia serpentina is mainly due to the presence of

• (A) Ajmaline
• (B) Reserpine
• (C) Vincristine
• (D) Colchicine

The presence of volatile oil cells and schizogenous oil cavities is a diagnostic feature of

• (A) Ginger
• (B) Clove
• (C) Fennel
• (D) Asafoetida

Tolu balsam is mainly employed in pharmaceutical preparations as _________ agent.

• (A) Antimalarial
• (B) Expectorant and flavouring
• (C) Antidiabetic
• (D) Cardiotonic

_________ attributed to the anti-rheumatic activity of colchicum seeds.

• (A) Vinblastine
• (B) Reserpine
• (C) Colchicine
• (D) Podophyllotoxin

What is the source of anti-tumour alkaloids vincristine and vinblastine?

• (A) Catharanthus roseus
• (B) Podophyllum emodi
• (C) Rauwolfia serpentina
• (D) Artemisia annua

Which of the following belongs to lignin category of natural products?

• (A) Podophyllotoxin
• (B) Quinine
• (C) Artemisinin
• (D) Ergotamine

The hypoglycaemic effect of Gymnema sylvestre is primarily due to its ability to

• (A) Stimulate insulin degradation
• (B) Regenerate pancreatic \(\beta\)-cells and suppress sweet taste
• (C) Inhibit glucose absorption only
• (D) Increase glucagon secretion

_________ are mainly responsible for the diuretic activity of Punarnava \((Boerhaavia diffusa)\).

• (A) Alkaloids
• (B) Flavonoids and potassium salts
• (C) Glycosides
• (D) Tannins

Quinine, a potent antimalarial drug, is obtained from

• (A) Artemisia annua
• (B) Cinchona bark
• (C) Podophyllum rhizome
• (D) Ergot sclerotia

Lanolin used as a pharmaceutical aid is obtained from

• (A) Plant wax
• (B) Petroleum wax
• (C) Wool fat of sheep
• (D) Beeswax secretion

What is the primary objective of financial planning in community pharmacy?

• (A) Increase stock levels
• (B) Maximize discounts
• (C) Ensure optimal fund utilization and profitability
• (D) Reduce manpower

The primary reason for degreasing cotton before using it as surgical dressing is to

• (A) Increase absorbency
• (B) Improve tensile strength
• (C) Enhance colour
• (D) Reduce fibre length

Surgical catgut sutures are prepared from

• (A) Collagen of sheep or goat intestine
• (B) Silk fibres of Bombyx mori
• (C) Cotton cellulose fibres
• (D) Synthetic polymers

Which of the following tests is used for best detecting the presence of excessive silica in crude drugs?

• (A) Ash value
• (B) Acid-insoluble ash value
• (C) Water-soluble ash
• (D) Extractive value

Transverse section of Adhatoda vasica leaf shows a diagnostic feature of

• (A) Multicellular glandular trichomes and cystoliths
• (B) Unicellular covering trichomes only
• (C) Absence of stomata
• (D) Presence of resin ducts

Arishta preparations in Ayurveda are characterized by

• (A) Powdered crude drugs
• (B) Fermented liquid preparations
• (C) Calcined metallic or mineral drugs
• (D) Oil-based formulations

What is the fundamental principle of Homeopathy?

• (A) Balance of doshas
• (B) Use of polyherbal mixtures
• (C) ``Like cures like''
• (D) Detoxification therapy

Which herbal cosmetic oil is mainly used for its emollient and skin-softening property?

• (A) Lavender oil
• (B) Rosemary oil
• (C) Almond oil
• (D) Sandalwood oil

What is the main therapeutic use of Aloe vera gel?

• (A) Analgesic action
• (B) Wound healing and skin hydration
• (C) Anthelmintic activity
• (D) Sedative effect

The primary objective of phytochemical investigation is to

• (A) Increase plant yield
• (B) Enhance shelf life
• (C) Improve cosmetic value
• (D) Identify and characterize chemical constituents

What is the primary need of OTC medicines?

• (A) Increase self-treatment
• (B) Reduce physician workload by managing minor ailments
• (C) Promote combination therapy
• (D) Improve sales

Which condition requires immediate medical referral?

• (A) Mild headache for one day
• (B) Common cold
• (C) Fever persisting beyond 3 days
• (D) Nasal congestion

Major risk associated with irrational self-medication is

• (A) Improved adherence
• (B) Antimicrobial resistance
• (C) Faster relief
• (D) Reduced cost

Best OTC option for dry cough without fever is

• (A) Antibiotics
• (B) Expectorants
• (C) Corticosteroids
• (D) Dextromethorphan

The primary goal of Good Pharmacy Practice (GPP) is to ensure

• (A) Increased profit
• (B) Legal protection
• (C) Safe and rational use of medicines
• (D) Efficient procurement

Which is an essential component of a valid prescription?

• (A) Diagnosis
• (B) Age of patient
• (C) Prescriber's signature
• (D) Cost of medicine

Main label on dispensed medicine should NOT include

• (A) Patient name
• (B) Directions for use
• (C) Price of medicine
• (D) Pharmacy details

Most common cause of dispensing errors is

• (A) Poor ventilation
• (B) Look-alike and sound-alike drugs
• (C) Excess manpower
• (D) Short expiry

Patient Package Inserts (PPIs) mainly aim to

• (A) Promote brands
• (B) Replace pharmacist counselling
• (C) Meet marketing needs
• (D) Provide standardized drug information for safe use

What is the need for strongly recommending breastfeeding?

• (A) Is economically cheaper only
• (B) Prevents all childhood diseases
• (C) Provides ideal nutrition and passive immunity to infants
• (D) Improves digestion alone

According to Drugs and Cosmetics Rules, 1945, the minimum area required for a retail pharmacy is _______ \(m^2\).

• (A) 6
• (B) 8
• (C) 10
• (D) 12

Which of the following is a mandatory legal requirement for the establishment of a community pharmacy in India?

• (A) NABH accreditation
• (B) Employment of a registered pharmacist during working hours
• (C) Ownership by a pharmacist
• (D) ISO certification

The most important criterion in selecting a site for a community pharmacy is

• (A) Population density and patient footfall
• (B) Parking availability
• (C) Cost of the premises
• (D) Proximity to wholesaler

In ideal community pharmacy design, the prescription counter should be located _________.

• (A) Near the entrance
• (B) At the rear end
• (C) Adjacent to wash area
• (D) In storage section

Vendor selection in community pharmacy mainly depends on

• (A) Supplier reputation only
• (B) Distance from pharmacy
• (C) Reliability of supply and credit terms
• (D) Brand popularity

Which of the following represents artificially acquired active immunity?

• (A) Natural infection
• (B) Maternal antibodies
• (C) Vaccination
• (D) Serum administration

One of the major public health concerns associated with pharmaceutical environmental pollution is

• (A) Increased drug stability
• (B) Development of antimicrobial resistance
• (C) Reduced therapeutic efficacy
• (D) Improved sanitation

Macronutrients are those nutrients that are required by the body

• (A) In very small quantities for enzymatic activity
• (B) Only during disease conditions
• (C) In large amounts for energy and growth
• (D) Only for metabolic regulation

Dietary fibre primarily helps in _________.

• (A) Increasing blood glucose levels
• (B) Preventing constipation and improving gut health
• (C) Enhancing fat absorption
• (D) Increasing calorific value of diet

What is food fortification?

• (A) Addition of preservatives to food
• (B) Removal of contaminants from food
• (C) Deliberate addition of essential nutrients to food
• (D) Genetic modification of crops

The powerhouse of a cell is

• (A) Nucleus
• (B) Mitochondria
• (C) Ribosomes
• (D) Lysosomes

Simple squamous epithelium is found in

• (A) Skin
• (B) Alveoli of lungs
• (C) Tendon
• (D) Brain

Functional unit of nervous tissue is

• (A) Neuron
• (B) Nephron
• (C) Osteon
• (D) Sarcomere

Normal life span of RBC is approximately

• (A) 60 days
• (B) 90 days
• (C) 120 days
• (D) 180 days

Heparin is secreted by

• (A) Neutrophils
• (B) Eosinophils
• (C) Basophils
• (D) Platelets

Vitamin essential for blood clotting is

• (A) Vitamin A
• (B) Vitamin C
• (C) Vitamin D
• (D) Vitamin K

Largest lymphatic organ in human body is

• (A) Thymus
• (B) Spleen
• (C) Tonsil
• (D) Lymph node

The pacemaker of heart is

• (A) AV node
• (B) SA node
• (C) Bundle of His
• (D) Purkinje fibres

Pulmonary circulation carries blood from

• (A) Heart to lungs
• (B) Liver to heart
• (C) Intestine to liver
• (D) Kidney to bladder

Normal systolic blood pressure in adult is

• (A) 80 mm Hg
• (B) 100 mm Hg
• (C) 120 mm Hg
• (D) 160 mm Hg

Functional unit of lungs is

• (A) Bronchus
• (B) Alveolus
• (C) Trachea
• (D) Pleura

Normal tidal volume in adult is approximately

• (A) 100 mL
• (B) 500 mL
• (C) 1000 mL
• (D) 1500 mL

Largest gland in the human body is

• (A) Pituitary
• (B) Thyroid
• (C) Liver
• (D) Pancreas

Bile is stored in

• (A) Liver
• (B) Pancreas
• (C) Gall bladder
• (D) Spleen

Which of the following vitamins acts as an antioxidant?

• (A) Vitamin B\(_1\)
• (B) Vitamin K
• (C) Vitamin E
• (D) Vitamin D

Which of the following is NOT a saponifiable lipid?

• (A) Triglycerides
• (B) Waxes
• (C) Cholesterol
• (D) Phospholipids

Which of the following is a common example of phospholipid present in cell membranes?

• (A) Lecithin
• (B) Cholesterol
• (C) Palmitic acid
• (D) Glucose

Which of the following lipoproteins transports dietary triglycerides from intestine to tissues?

• (A) VLDL
• (B) LDL
• (C) HDL
• (D) Chylomicrons

HDL is called good cholesterol because it

• (A) Transports cholesterol from tissues to liver
• (B) Transports triglycerides from intestine
• (C) Carries cholesterol from liver to tissues
• (D) Increases fat deposition in blood vessels

Which enzyme is involved in digestion of fats?

• (A) Amylase
• (B) Pepsin
• (C) Lipase
• (D) Trypsin

Insulin is secreted by _________.

• (A) Alpha cells
• (B) Beta cells
• (C) Delta cells
• (D) Acinar cells

Which route gives fastest drug absorption?

• (A) Oral
• (B) Intramuscular
• (C) Subcutaneous
• (D) Transdermal

First pass metabolism occurs mainly in _________.

• (A) Kidney
• (B) Liver
• (C) Lungs
• (D) Skin

Which route is suitable for unconscious patient?

• (A) Oral
• (B) Parenteral
• (C) Sublingual
• (D) Topical

Bioavailability refers to _________.

• (A) Rate and extent of drug reaching systemic circulation
• (B) Drug protein binding
• (C) Drug metabolism
• (D) Drug excretion

Loading dose is given to _________.

• (A) Reduce toxicity
• (B) Achieve therapeutic level quickly
• (C) Increase excretion
• (D) Avoid absorption

Drug excretion mainly occurs through _________.

• (A) Liver
• (B) Kidney
• (C) Lungs
• (D) Skin

Antagonist is a drug which _________.

• (A) Activates receptor
• (B) Blocks receptor response
• (C) Increases absorption
• (D) Stimulates metabolism

The therapeutic index is defined as _________.

• (A) \(LD_{50}/ED_{50}\)
• (B) \(ED_{50}/LD_{50}\)
• (C) \(Dose/Time\)
• (D) \(Clearance/Volume\)

Placebo is _________.

• (A) Highly toxic drug
• (B) Inert substance with no specific pharmacological action
• (C) Antidote
• (D) Antibiotic

Phenytoin is mainly used in _________.

• (A) Hypertension
• (B) Epilepsy
• (C) Diabetes
• (D) Asthma

Atropine is obtained from _________.

• (A) Atropa belladonna
• (B) Digitalis purpurea
• (C) Rauwolfia serpentina
• (D) Papaver somniferum

Amlodipine is used in treatment of _________.

• (A) Epilepsy
• (B) Hypertension
• (C) Tuberculosis
• (D) Malaria

Salbutamol is used as _________.

• (A) Antacid
• (B) Bronchodilator
• (C) Antidiabetic
• (D) Antimalarial

Morphine is used as _________.

• (A) Antihypertensive
• (B) Strong analgesic
• (C) Antifungal
• (D) Antacid

Paracetamol is mainly used as _________.

• (A) Antibiotic
• (B) Analgesic and antipyretic
• (C) Antifungal
• (D) Antihypertensive

Penicillin acts by inhibiting _________.

• (A) Protein synthesis
• (B) Cell wall synthesis
• (C) DNA replication
• (D) Folic acid synthesis

Tetracycline inhibits _________.

• (A) Cell wall synthesis
• (B) Protein synthesis
• (C) DNA replication
• (D) RNA synthesis

Streptomycin belongs to _________ antibiotics.

• (A) Penicillins
• (B) Cephalosporins
• (C) Aminoglycosides
• (D) Macrolides

Which drug should be avoided in patients with history of hypersensitivity to penicillins?

• (A) Paracetamol
• (B) Tetracycline
• (C) Gentamicin
• (D) Penicillins

Metformin is used for treatment of _________.

• (A) Hypertension
• (B) Type 2 diabetes mellitus
• (C) Asthma
• (D) Epilepsy

Aspirin is used as _________.

• (A) Antacid
• (B) Analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory drug
• (C) Antifungal
• (D) Antidiabetic

Fluconazole is _________ drug.

• (A) Antibacterial
• (B) Antifungal
• (C) Antiviral
• (D) Antimalarial

Antihistamines are mainly used for _________.

• (A) Allergic conditions
• (B) Diabetes
• (C) Tuberculosis
• (D) Malaria

Corticosteroids are mainly used as _________.

• (A) Anti-inflammatory drugs
• (B) Antacids
• (C) Antifungals
• (D) Antimalarials

Drug of choice in anaphylactic shock is _________.

• (A) Adrenaline
• (B) Paracetamol
• (C) Metformin
• (D) Fluconazole

Oral contraceptive pills mainly prevent pregnancy by _________.

• (A) Increasing ovulation
• (B) Preventing ovulation
• (C) Increasing fertilization
• (D) Increasing implantation

Propranolol is classified as _________.

• (A) Beta blocker
• (B) Calcium channel blocker
• (C) Diuretic
• (D) Antifungal

Furosemide is classified as _________.

• (A) Loop diuretic
• (B) Antacid
• (C) Antifungal
• (D) Antiepileptic

Ondansetron is mainly used as _________.

• (A) Antiemetic
• (B) Antidiabetic
• (C) Antimalarial
• (D) Antacid