The NEET PG 2024 Shift 1 question paper is available here with detailed solutions for free download. NEET PG 2024 was conducted by the National Board of Examinations in Medical Sciences (NBEMS) on August 11, 2024, as a 200-question computer-based test of 3 hours 30 minutes held in two shifts.

NEET PG 2024 Shift 1 Question Paper with Solutions Download PDF Check Solutions

NEET PG 2024 Shift 1 Questions with Solutions


Question 1:

Which area is fractured in the given X-ray?

  • (A) Tibial tuberosity
  • (B) Medial epicondyle of tibia
  • (C) Gerdy's tubercle

Question 2:

Which nerve will be commonly involved if the injury occurs at the marked levels?

  • (A) L4
  • (B) L5
  • (C) L2
  • (D) L3

Question 3:

What is the most likely diagnosis for the lesion shown here?

  • (A)

    Sunburst appearance

  • (B)

    Onion-skin appearance

  • (C)

    Codman’s triangle

  • (D)

    Ground glass appearance


Question 4:

A patient from a railway station is arrested by police and shows symptoms like dilated pupils, sweating, hot skin, and staggering gait. He is suspected to have intoxication from:

  • (A) Dhatura
  • (B) Cocaine
  • (C) Alcohol
  • (D) Morphine

Question 5:

In MTP at 28 weeks for congenital anomalies, whose presence is not required?

  • (A) Obstetrician
  • (B) Lawyer
  • (C) Pediatrician
  • (D) Sonologist

Question 6:

A child was born after the death of his father, and some of them claimed that the child is not from his biological father. DNA fingerprinting was done to identify the father, and the deceased father was found to be the biological father. This child is called as:

  • (A) Posthumous child
  • (B) Suppositious child
  • (C) Illegitimate child

Question 7:

Which one is correct about the sequence of rigor mortis?

  • (A) Centre to periphery
  • (B) Head to foot
  • (C) Foot to head
  • (D) Simultaneously

Question 8:

An 18-year-old male accused of rape claims he is 16 years old. Which joint X-ray should be done?

  • (A) Elbow and ankle
  • (B) Knee and wrist
  • (C) Shoulder and head
  • (D) Hip & knee

Question 9:

What is the management of the endoscopic finding given in the image?

 

  • (A) Stenting
  • (B) Balloon dilatation
  • (C) Fulguration
  • (D) Internal urethrotomy

Question 10:

Identify the image given in UGIE (Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy):
Upper Gastrointestinal Endoscopy

  • (A) Barrett’s esophagus
  • (B) Esophageal varices
  • (C) Gastric erosion

Question 11:

A 12-year-old child presented with sudden severe onset of scrotal pain after a history of trauma 6 hours before. Intraoperative image is given. What is the likely diagnosis? 

  • (A) Torsion testis with gangrene
  • (B) Testicular hematoma
  • (C) Torsion testis
  • (D) Gangrene of testis

Question 12:

What is the negative pressure in VAC dressing?

  • (A) 60-90 mmHg
  • (B) 90-100 mmHg
  • (C) 120-130 mmHg
  • (D) 130-150 mmHg

Question 13:

Identify the structure marked in the intraoperative image of congenital inguinal hernia:

  • (A) Femoral vein
  • (B) Obturator vein
  • (C) Testicular vein
  • (D) Inferior epigastric vein

Question 14:

How does a skin graft derive its nutrition on day 3?

  • (A) Plasma imbibition
  • (B) Inosculation
  • (C) Neovascularization
  • (D) None

Question 15:

Identify the ulcer:
ulcer

  • (A) Arterial
  • (B) Venous
  • (C) Trophic
  • (D) Diabetic foot ulcer

Question 16:

A 30-year-old female presented with swelling in the neck. What is the next step in evaluation?

  • (A) I131
  • (B) FNAC
  • (C) TSI & T4
  • (D) FSH

Question 17:

A 5-year-old girl was washing her doll with shampoo containing a chemical Rotenone. Her mother notices her in an unconscious state. Which of the following complex is inhibited by the above-mentioned chemical?

  • (A) NADH Dehydrogenase
  • (B) Succinate DH
  • (C) Cytochrome C
  • (D) Cytochrome oxidase

Question 18:

Which of the following is true regarding the image provided? 

  • (A) EMLA contains ropivacaine and ligocaine.
  • (B) EMLA can lead to hemoglobinemia.
  • (C) EMLA contains 5 percent lignocaine.
  • (D) EMLA acts within 15 minutes.

Question 19:

A patient presents with no pulse, and the ECG shows the following rhythm. What is the next appropriate step? 

  • (A) Defibrillate, check pulse and then perform CPR
  • (B) Cardioversion
  • (C) Defibrillate, perform CPR, and then check the pulse
  • (D) Administer epinephrine

Question 20:

Identify the arrow-marked nerve. 

  • (A) Medial pectoral nerve
  • (B) Lateral pectoral nerve
  • (C) Long thoracic nerve
  • (D) Thoracodorsal nerve

Question 21:

Behind the medial malleolus and in front of Achilles, which artery is present?

  • (A) Posterior tibial artery
  • (B) Peroneal artery
  • (C) Anterior tibial artery
  • (D) Dorsalis pedis artery

Question 22:

The covering of an omphalocele is derived from which layer?

  • (A) Amnion
  • (B) Chorion
  • (C) Mesoderm
  • (D) Endoderm

Question 23:

A 13-year-old boy presents with jaundice, fatigue, muscle stiffness, tremors, behavioral changes, hepatosplenomegaly, and Kayser-Fleischer rings. Which test is definitive for the diagnosis?

  • (A) Urinary copper
  • (B) Serum ceruloplasmin
  • (C) Hepatic parenchymal copper concentration
  • (D) Genetic testing for ATP7B mutation

Question 24:

A patient presents with xanthomas on the Achilles tendon. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Familial hypercholesterolemia
  • (B) Tangier disease
  • (C) Familial hyperchylomicronemia
  • (D) Type III hyperlipoproteinemia

Question 25:

A patient with multiple tendon xanthomas is found to have a serum cholesterol level of 398 mg/dL and an LDL level of 220 mg/dL. What is the most likely defect?

  • (A) Lipoprotein lipase deficiency
  • (B) LDL receptor defect
  • (C) Defective Apo B-100
  • (D) PCSK9 gain-of-function mutation

Question 26:

A 30-year-old patient presents with a history of flat lesions near the anal canal, rashes on the body, and hair loss that follows a particular pattern, as shown in the image. What is the diagnosis? 

  • (A) Trichotillomania
  • (B) Alopecia areata
  • (C) Secondary syphilis
  • (D) Malassezia

Question 27:

A 38-year-old patient with hypopigmented nodular lesions with anesthesia overarm with ulnar nerve involvement underwent a biopsy and intradermal antigen test. Based on the image, which statement regarding the condition is most accurate? 

  • (A) Tuberculoid leprosy with a positive antigen test
  • (B) Lepromatous leprosy with a positive antigen test
  • (C) Erythema nodosum leprosum with a negative antigen test
  • (D) Lepromatous leprosy with a negative antigen test

Question 28:

A singer is finding difficulty raising the pitch of her voice. On examination, her vocal cords were depressed and bowing. Which of the following muscles is involved?

  • (A) Cricothyroid
  • (B) Interarytenoid
  • (C) Posterior cricoarytenoid
  • (D) Lateral arytenoid

Question 29:

A 45-year-old woman is diagnosed with right vestibular neuritis. What findings are expected during the head impulse test in this patient?

  • (A) When the head is turned to the left, the eyeballs move to the left with Nystagmus.
  • (B) When the head is turned to the left, the eyeballs move to the right with nystagmus.
  • (C) When the head is turned to the right, the eyeballs move to the left with Nystagmus.
  • (D) When the head is turned to the right, the eyeballs move to the right with nystagmus.

Question 30:

In medicolegal examination, the accused 18-year-old male claims he is 16 years old. Which joint x-ray should be done?

  • (A) Head & shoulder
  • (B) Elbow and ankle
  • (C) Knee and wrist
  • (D) Elbow & hip

Question 31:

Police brought a person from the railway track with features of a dry, dilated pupil, dry skin, slurring of speech, and altered sensorium. The poisoning is?

  • (A) Morphine
  • (B) Cannabis
  • (C) Datura
  • (D) Alcohol

Question 32:

The flexion point in a ventouse delivery is located at which of the following positions on the fetal head?

  • (A) 3 cm posterior to the anterior fontanelle
  • (B) 3 cm anterior to the posterior fontanelle
  • (C) 6 cm anterior to the posterior fontanelle
  • (D) Midway between the anterior and posterior fontanelle

Question 33:

Identify the instrument shown below 

  • (A) Kielland
  • (B) Wrigley
  • (C) Pipers
  • (D) None of the above

Question 34:

The patient is having a headache and confusion. A brain tumor diagnosis is made. Family history reveals brain and kidney tumors. Choose the correct option.

  • (A) Neurofibromatosis
  • (B) Li fraumeni syndrome
  • (C) VHL syndrome
  • (D) Churg Strauss syndrome

Question 35:

A 62-year-old patient presents with left-sided arm and leg weakness, right-sided facial paralysis, and difficulty with horizontal eye movements. Based on the clinical presentation, which of the following syndromes is most consistent with these symptoms?

  • (A) Foville syndrome
  • (B) Benedict’s syndrome
  • (C) Millard-Gubler syndrome
  • (D) Wallenberg syndrome

Question 36:

A patient presents with painful vesicles in the genital region. Identify the lesion shown in the image and choose the correct diagnosis. 

  • (A) Herpes
  • (B) Chancroid
  • (C) Syphilis
  • (D) Candidiasis

Question 37:

A patient presents with perianal itching. A peripheral swab was taken, and the image below shows the findings. What is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) H Nana
  • (B) Ancylostoma
  • (C) Enterobius vermicularis
  • (D) Necator Americanus

Question 38:

A 2-month-old child is brought to the ophthalmology OPD with the following presentation. What is the ideal management? 

  • (A) Medical management
  • (B) Operate immediately
  • (C) Surgery after 6 months
  • (D) Surgery after 2 years

Question 39:

A patient presents with a gradual loss of night vision and peripheral vision. What is the most likely diagnosis based on fundoscopy findings? 

  • (A) Retinitis pigmentosa
  • (B) Retinal hemorrhage
  • (C) Diabetic retinopathy
  • (D) Hypertensive retinopathy

Question 40:

A man presents with back pain following a road traffic accident. There was no history of neurological deficit. X-ray spine is done. What is the diagnosis? 

  • (A) Spinous process fracture
  • (B) Chance fracture
  • (C) Fracture o base of vertebrae
  • (D) Compressed fracture

Question 41:

A child presents with growth failure. Biochemical analysis shows normal Ca2+, normal PTH, reduced phosphate, and increased ALP. What is the diagnosis? 

  • (A) Nutritional rickets
  • (B) Hypophosphatemic rickets
  • (C) Type 1 VDDR
  • (D) Type 2 VDDR

Question 42:

A patient presents with fever, hepatosplenomegaly, abdominal pain, and WBC count > 50,000/mm\(^3\). Which of the following genetic abnormalities is involved?

  • (A) t(9;22)
  • (B) del(1q)
  • (C) t(15;17)
  • (D) del 3q

Question 43:

A 23-year-old female with a height of 4 feet has a karyotype, as shown in the image below. Which of the following conditions is the most likely etiology? 

  • (A) Turner syndrome
  • (B) Klinefelter syndrome
  • (C) Mayer-Rokitansky-Küster-Hauser syndrome (MRKHS)
  • (D) Edwards syndrome

Question 44:

An infant presents with vomiting after feeding. A Benedict’s test was performed and returned positive for a non-glucose substance. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Galactosemia due to GAL-1-P uridyl transferase enzyme deficiency
  • (B) Hereditary fructose intolerance due to aldolase B deficiency
  • (C) Glucose-6-Phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) deficiency
  • (D) Galactosemia due to galactokinase enzyme deficiency

Question 45:

Which neonatal anomaly is depicted in the image?

  • (A) Omphalocele
  • (B) Gastroschisis
  • (C) Patent vitello intestinal duct
  • (D) Exstrophy bladder

Question 46:

Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Samter’s triad?

  • (A) It is only triggered by aspirin
  • (B) Other NSAIDs with COX-1 blocking ability can also trigger symptoms.
  • (C) It is characterized by asthma, nasal polyps, and aspirin sensitivity.
  • (D) It involves overproduction of leukotrienes.

Question 47:

Aprepitant, a drug used to prevent late-onset chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting, acts through which of the following mechanisms?

  • (A) NK-1 antagonist
  • (B) NK-1 agonist
  • (C) NK-3 antagonist
  • (D) NK-2 antagonist

Question 48:

Sour taste is perceived by which receptors?

  • (A) T1R1
  • (B) T1R2
  • (C) T1R3
  • (D) TRPP3

Question 49:

Which ion is most responsible for the resting membrane potential (RMP)?

  • (A) Potassium (K+)
  • (B) Calcium (Ca2+)
  • (C) Sodium (Na+)
  • (D) Chloride (Cl-)

Question 50:

A fruit farmer presents with fever, respiratory difficulties, and neurological complications. What is the most likely diagnosis? 

  • (A) Ebola
  • (B) Meningitis
  • (C) Nipah
  • (D) Zika

Question 51:

Which of the following vaccines is kept at the lowest level? 

  • (A) OPV
  • (B) DPT
  • (C) Hep B
  • (D) Rota

Question 52:

Which drug is used in the maintenance phase of opioid withdrawal?

  • (A) Buprenorphine
  • (B) Disulfiram
  • (C) Butorphanol
  • (D) Clonidine

Question 53:

A 45-year-old woman presents with a long-standing history of “feeling tensed” along with an upset stomach, diarrhea, and heartburn. She mentions that her family members also experience similar symptoms. Which of the following symptoms is most likely to be observed in this patient?

  • (A) Neologisms
  • (B) Tingling at extremities
  • (C) Hallucinations
  • (D) Idea of reference

Question 54:

A 40-year-old female patient complains of a persistent headache. A CT scan of the head was performed, as shown below. What is the most accurate diagnosis? 

  • (A) Subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH)
  • (B) Epidural hemorrhage
  • (C) Subdural hemorrhage
  • (D) Intraparenchymal hemorrhage

Question 55:

A 45-year-old patient presents with ptosis and muscle weakness that improves with rest. She also complains of dysphagia and has engorged veins in her thorax. Based on the CT scan image provided, what is the most likely diagnosis? 

  • (A) Thymoma
  • (B) Pancoast tumor
  • (C) Adenocarcinoma
  • (D) Small cell lung cancer

Question 56:

What instrument is used to insert this tube? 

  • (A) Nephroscope
  • (B) Cysto-urethroscope
  • (C) Ureteroscope
  • (D) Endoscope

Question 57:

What is the ideal pressure setting for vacuum-assisted closure (VAC) therapy?

  • (A) -125 mm Hg
  • (B) 60 to 80 mm Hg
  • (C) 130 mm Hg
  • (D) 80 to 100 mm Hg

Question 58:

Diagnosis of MRCP image.

  • (A) GB Stone
  • (B) Cholangiocarcinoma
  • (C) Choledochal Cyst
  • (D) Gall and Blood Cancer

Question 59:

A 35 year old nullipara female presented with dull aching pain with exacerbation during menstrual cycle. Usg reveals a heterogenous mass in right adnexa. Mri reveals a 4 x 5 cm T1 hyperintense mass with no suppression on fat started images. T2 weighted images show low signal with Dark shading. Diagnosis?

  • (A) Dermoid cyst
  • (B) Endometrioma
  • (C) Ovarian cancer
  • (D) Para Ovarian Cyst

Question 60:

Diagnosis of following Plain Xray of abdomen.

  • (A) Enterolith in jejunum
  • (B) Calcific mediastinal lymph nodes
  • (C) Horse shoe kidney with calculi
  • (D) Chronic calcific pancreatitis

Question 61:

A patient has Proteus infection and now plain xray of abdomen was done and a large stone was shown in urinary bladder. Stone is made up of

  • (A) Calcium Phosphate
  • (B) Cysteine
  • (C) Calcium Oxalate
  • (D) Xanthine

Question 62:

Correct statement regarding esophageal FB (foreign body).

  • (A) Right main bronchus is one of the site of constriction
  • (B) Most common site of impaction is cricopharyngeus
  • (C) Commonly seen in adults
  • (D) Cant cause mediastinitis

Question 63:

Gastrectomy patient needs supplemental: (PART A)

  • (A) Vit c
  • (B) Vit d
  • (C) Vit b12
  • (D) Vit a

Question 64:

After a right limb amputation, the patient is experiencing severe pain phantom limb.
What is the mechanism behind this?

  • (A) Projection of adjacent fibres to overlap to right sensory cortex
  • (B) Projection of adjacent fibres to overlap to left sensory cortex
  • (C) Expansion of right sensory cortex
  • (D) Expansion of left sensory cortex

Question 65:

Patient had SUN BURN, now takes bath in 40 degree water, and feels pain.

  • (A) Thermal receptor: hyperalgesia
  • (B) Innocuous thermal receptor allodynia
  • (C) Thermal receptor allodynia
  • (D) Innocuous thermal receptor hyperalgesia

Question 66:

A 50 yr old female presented with dyspnoea and chest pain. Which of the following proves that she has aortic stenosis rather than aortic regurgitation?

  • (A) Increase in myocardial oxygen consumption is seen with increased pressure work than volume
  • (B) Aortic stenosis causes reduced pressure at aortic valve
  • (C) Workload has nothing to do with myocardial oxygen consumption
  • (D) Increase in preload more than afterload than after load

Question 67:

Taste is absent in which taste bud (papilla)?

  • (A) Filiform
  • (B) Foliate
  • (C) Fungiform Papilla Tash
  • (D) Circumvallate

Question 68:

Which receptor (transporter) helps in improvement of insulin resistance in DM2 (type 2 diabetes mellitus) with regular exercise and physical activity?

  • (A) GLUT1
  • (B) GLUT4
  • (C) GLUT2
  • (D) GLUT3

Question 69:

A man has difficulty in sleep during the night. He has a habit of drinking coffee before bed time. What is the role of caffeine in wakefulness?

  • (A) Blocks adenosine action and causes wakefulness
  • (B) Activates locus coeruleus and causes wakefulness
  • (C) No role in maintaining wakefulness if taken 1 hr before sleep
  • (D) Activates histamine release and prevents sleep

Question 70:

Resting membrane potential (RMP) is predominantly affected by which ion?

  • (A) K\(^+\)
  • (B) Ca
  • (C) Na
  • (D) Cl

Question 71:

Alcoholic gait, nystagmus after RTA (road traffic accident) — which lobe of the cerebellum is affected?

  • (A) Flocculonodular
  • (B) Dentate
  • (C) Anterior lobe
  • (D) Vermis

Question 72:

A 14yr old boy presented with nasal mass and recurrent episodes of bleeding from the mass. Investigation of choice.

  • (A) Plain CT
  • (B) CT with contrast
  • (C) X Ray Caldwell view
  • (D) X Ray with Pierre view

Question 73:

Cochlear implant given below, identify the marked structure:

  • (A) Internal magnet
  • (B) Electrode
  • (C) Receiver
  • (D) Antenna

Question 74:

Which nerve supplies the external ear?

  • (A) ATN, greater auricular, 7 and 10
  • (B) Greater auricular, 7 and 10, ATN
  • (C) 7 and 10, ATN, greater auricular nerve
  • (D) ATN, 7 and 10, GAN

Question 75:

In head impulse test, following finding seen in right vestibular neuritis:

  • (A) On rotating head to right, left saccade
  • (B) On rotating head to left, right saccade
  • (C) On rotating head toward right, right saccade
  • (D) On rotating to the left, left saccade

Question 76:

Which of the following instrument insertion will be difficult:

  • (A) Nasogastric Tube
  • (B) LMA
  • (C) Tracheostomy
  • (D) Indirect Laryngoscopy

Question 77:

A singer presents with problem in high pitch. On examination bowing of one side vocal cord. Which of the following muscle is affected?

  • (A) Posterior cricoarytenoid
  • (B) Lateral cricoarytenoid
  • (C) Cricothyroid
  • (D) Thyroarytenoid

Question 78:

A 45-year-old male presents with breathlessness and undergoes a CT scan of the paranasal sinuses (PNS). Which sinus is obstructed?

  • (A) Maxillary
  • (B) Frontal
  • (C) Sphenoid
  • (D) Ethmoid

Question 79:

Intraoperatively which stain is used to view following lesion:

  • (A) AgNo3
  • (B) Toluidine Blue
  • (C) Congo red
  • (D) Methylene blue

Question 80:

Gag reflex will be absent in which nerve injury?

  • (A) 5 and 10
  • (B) 9 and 10
  • (C) 10 and 12
  • (D) 7 and 9

Question 81:

In given x-ray which of the following sign is seen:

  • (A) Double ring sign
  • (B) String sign
  • (C) Steeple sign
  • (D) Thumb sign

Question 82:

Male not responding to O₂, diagnosis ARDS. What is the role of IL-8 in ARDS?

  • (A) Endothelial cell activation
  • (B) Requirement of neutrophil
  • (C) Macrophage activation
  • (D) Promote surfactant production

Question 83:

A patient presents with the finding as shown. What is the best investigation for Wilson?

  • (A) Urine Copper
  • (B) Hepatic copper
  • (C) S. Ceruloplasmin
  • (D) MRI Brain

Question 84:

Which tumor is positive for TTF-1?

  • (A) Sq (Squamous cell carcinoma)
  • (B) Small (Small cell carcinoma)
  • (C) Adeno Ca (Adenocarcinoma)
  • (D) Carcinoid

Question 85:

Vitamin to be supplemented after gastrectomy?

  • (A) Vit A
  • (B) Vit C
  • (C) Vit B12
  • (D) Vit D

Question 86:

10/m presents with CERVICAL L. node+, Surface Ig +, CD34−, 5−, 23−, tdt −, cd 10+, 19+:

  • (A) Burkitts Lymphoma
  • (B) DLBCL
  • (C) Anaplastic
  • (D) B-ALL

Question 87:

Most common mutation in Papillary cell CA?

  • (A) BRAF V600E
  • (B) RET
  • (C) MET
  • (D) RAS

Question 88:

Renal mass, haematuria, flank pain:

  • (A) Clear cell
  • (B) Papillary
  • (C) Chromophobic
  • (D) Belini (Collecting duct / Bellini)

Question 89:

Which disease will show the following mode of inheritance?

  • (A) Wiskott (Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome)
  • (B) Wilson
  • (C) Prader willi
  • (D) Achondroplasia

Question 90:

Young male died during exercise. History of similar history in a sibling. On gross morphology: septal thickening was seen. Most common cause of death?

  • (A) DCM
  • (B) RCM
  • (C) HOCM
  • (D) Viral Myocarditis

Question 91:

Which is not true?

  • (A) vWD type 1 is mostly severe ds in children
  • (B) vWD type 3 mostly severe ds in children
  • (C) vWD type 2 is more related activity rather than levels
  • (D) vWD type 3 has severely low VWD

Question 92:

Child. Sunlight causes eruptions, diagnosed as DNA repair defect. Which defect can it be?

  • (A) Nucleotide excision
  • (B) Base excision repair
  • (C) Mismatch repair defect
  • (D) Recombination defect

Question 93:

18/M. Hepatosplenomegaly, Hb 7 gm%, LN+, WBC 50K, Platelets 30, petechiae, purpura, fatigue. What is the most appropriate management?

  • (A) Cytarabine + iso?
  • (B) IVIG x 2 days
  • (C) Prednisolone + Vinblastine
  • (D) Radiotherapy to LN

Question 94:

A baby failed to pass meconium. In this disease, the structures absent are absent in which of the following layer(s)?

Select the correct answer from the given below cord:

  • (A) 1 n 2
  • (B) 2 n 3
  • (C) 3 n 4
  • (D) 1 n 4

Question 95:

Muscle responsible for ptosis in Horner syndrome:-

  • (A) Orbicularis oculi
  • (B) Levator palpebrae
  • (C) Horner muscle
  • (D) Mullers muscle

Question 96:

A patient presented to eye OPD after 3 years of cataract surgery. Slit lamp finding was given. What is the likely diagnosis?

  • (A) PCO
  • (B) Bullous keratopathy
  • (C) Phakic glaucoma
  • (D) Lens subluxation

Question 97:

Following perimetry image is suggestive of?

  • (A) Extension of blind spot
  • (B) Arcuate scotoma
  • (C) Reinee step defect
  • (D) Altitude Anopia

Question 98:

A patient came with nyctalopia. Fundus image given below, what will be the diagnosis?

  • (A) Retinitis pigmentosa
  • (B) Vit A deficiency
  • (C) Retinal detachment
  • (D) Diabetic retinopathy

Question 99:

Patient was shown image A along with image B. Image C was visualised. Likely diagnosis?

  • (A) Lt eye suppression
  • (B) Rt eye suppression
  • (C) Crossed diplopia
  • (D) Uncrossed diplopia

Question 100:

A patient presents in eye OPD with this finding. What is it?

  • (A) Dermoid
  • (B) Lipodermoid
  • (C) Pterygium
  • (D) Papilloma

Question 101:

In Wilson disease, the best choice of investigation is:

  • (A) Serum copper
  • (B) Ceruloplasmin
  • (C) Hepatic copper estimation
  • (D) Urine copper

Question 102:

Clinical scenario about homocystinuria — which vitamin should be supplemented?

  • (A) Thiamine
  • (B) B6
  • (C) Biotin
  • (D) Pyruvate

Question 103:

A 2-week-old baby presented with vomiting, acidosis and early cataract. Which of the following enzyme is defective?

  • (A) Galactose 1 Po4 uridyl transferase
  • (B) Galactokinase
  • (C) Hexokinase
  • (D) Aldol reductase

Question 104:

Diagnosis of the MRI image:

  • (A) Arnold Chiari malformation
  • (B) Corpus callosal agenesis
  • (C) Vein of Galen Malformation
  • (D) Dandy Walker Malformation

Question 105:

A 76-year-old elderly patient presents in a confused state. He is on antihypertensive medication and on aspirin due to a previous heart attack. There is a minor trauma due to a fall from a chair 3 weeks back. NCCT is done and shown below. Diagnosis?

  • (A) SAH
  • (B) EDH
  • (C) Normal Study
  • (D) Chronic SDH

Question 106:

Taste absent in which taste bud?

  • (A) Filliform
  • (B) Foliate
  • (C) Papilla
  • (D) Circumvallate

Question 107:

Which of the following may be true in this patient

  • (A) Oesophagus is the correct site
  • (B) Most commonly in adult
  • (C) Mostly above cricoid
  • (D) Mediastinal infection not present

Question 108:

A patient presented with c/o hearing loss and the otoscopy finding shown. What will be the Rinne test finding?

  • (A) True positive
  • (B) True negative
  • (C) False positive
  • (D) False negative

Question 109:

A Female with mild CHL and tinnitus. The PTA is shown. What is the interpretation.

  • (A) Otosclerosis
  • (B) Meniere's disease
  • (C) NIHL
  • (D) None

Question 110:

A nasal surgery was done in this patient and the incision mark is shown. Which of these is probably done?

  • (A) Septoplasty
  • (B) Rhinoplasty
  • (C) FESS
  • (D) Young's surgery

Question 111:

A man met with an RTA and came to the emergency department with complaint of back pain. No neurological deficit. X-ray spine done — what will be the diagnosis?

  • (A) Fracture of spinous process
  • (B) Compressed fracture
  • (C) Fracture of base of vertebra
  • (D) Chance fracture

Question 112:

What is the type of classification used for this fracture and its type?

  • (A) Gartland type 3
  • (B) Salter Harris type 3
  • (C) Gartland type 4
  • (D) Salter Harris type 4

Question 113:

A child with this deformity. He has recurrent tooth abscesses. Calcium normal, Phosphorus low, PTH normal, ALP high. Diagnosis is?

  • (A) Nutritional rickets
  • (B) VDDR1
  • (C) VDDR2
  • (D) Hypophosphatemic rickets

Question 114:

A 16-year-old boy claiming to be 18 years old. Which 2 joints should be checked for age estimation?

  • (A) Wrist and knee
  • (B) Hip and elbow
  • (C) Hip and knee
  • (D) Head and shoulder

Question 115:

What is the device/implant shown in the following picture, used for femur neck fracture?

  • (A) Condylar plate
  • (B) Dynamic condylar screw
  • (C) Dynamic hip screw
  • (D) Locking plate

Question 116:

Pain in back of leg and thigh after lifting heavy weight. Which segment involved?

  • (A) L4
  • (B) L5
  • (C) L3
  • (D) S1

Question 117:

Fracture base of 5th metatarsal, below knee cast should be worn for

  • (A) 6-8 weeks
  • (B) 2-3 weeks
  • (C) 16-20 weeks
  • (D) 3-5 weeks

Question 118:

A football player had twist of the knee and ankle, clinically no bony injury was appreciated. Examiner is doing the test as shown her. Which test is this?

  • (A) Ant drawer for acl
  • (B) Post drawer pcl
  • (C) Mc murray
  • (D) Lachman

Question 119:

Fracture at which site will affect the longitudinal growth of the bone?

  • (A) Epiphyseal plate
  • (B) Epiphysis
  • (C) Metaphysis
  • (D) Diaphysis

Question 120:

Patient not unable to make "OK" Sign. Which muscle is involved?

  • (A) FDS
  • (B) FDP
  • (C) FIC

Question 121:

Artery passing between medial malleolus and the Achilles tendon?

  • (A) Posterior tibial artery
  • (B) Anterior tibial artery
  • (C) Dorsalis pedis artery
  • (D) Peroneal (fibular) artery

Question 122:

A child, left femur shaft fracture, managed by plating. What type of callus formation?

  • (A) Creeping substitution
  • (B) Primary callus
  • (C) Secondary callus

Question 123:

A diaphyseal tumor, probably small round blue cells. Which test/translocation is useful for diagnosis?

  • (A) t(11;22)
  • (B) t(15;17)
  • (C) —

Question 124:

What is the level of amputation shown here?

  • (A) Below Knee Amputation
  • (B) Above Knee Amputation
  • (C) Syme's amputation
  • (D) Hip disarticulation

Question 125:

A 40-year-old RTA case is brought to casualty & declared brought dead by Dr. The Dr informs police official & sends body to mortuary. Autopsy in this case will be conducted on request of

  • (A) PP (Public Prosecutor)
  • (B) Defence lawyer
  • (C) Dr
  • (D) Investigating officer

Question 126:

A 30-year-old male dead body was brought to autopsy. The Dr notices greyish white waxy material with preserved facial features. Which is true of following change

  • (A) High temperature needed
  • (B) Hot & dry environment needed
  • (C) Starts very early after death
  • (D) It is a form of body preservation by saponification of fats

Question 127:

The microscopic image of organism was analyzed in a drowning case. Which is correct about them

  • (A) Contains silica & chlorophyll point
  • (B) Are microscopic unicellular bacteria
  • (C) Present only in bone marrow
  • (D) Are not resistant to acids & heat

Question 128:

The range of fire by a rifled firearm per the image

  • (A) Contact
  • (B) Close
  • (C) Distant
  • (D) Cannot be opined

Question 129:

A pregnant female comes to a gynecologist who sends her for USG. On USG twin pregnancy noted with about one month difference in age of fetuses. Which is true of following

  • (A) Superfetation
  • (B) Superfecundation
  • (C) Suppositious child
  • (D) Posthumous child

Question 130:

The findings in image is suggestive of which poisoning

  • (A) OPC
  • (B) Arsenic
  • (C) Lead
  • (D) Mercury

Question 131:

Many people have consumed contaminated alcohol and present with abdominal pain, confusion, decreased vision. Methyl alcohol conc detected as 20 mg %. On assessment which metabolites will be found

  • (A) Formic acid & lactic acid
  • (B) Glycolic acid & oxalic acid
  • (C) Oxalic acid & formic acid
  • (D) Glyoxylic acid & formic acid

Question 132:

A person comes to emergency after consumption of substance, the form & dose of which is not known to relatives. The patient shows tachypnea, hypotension. On metabolic assessment high anion gap acidosis is noted with hypocalcemia. Diagnosis

  • (A) Methyl alcohol
  • (B) Ethylene glycol
  • (C) Dhatura
  • (D) Ethyl alcohol

Question 133:

36 yr - G4L3P3- FULL TERM PREG Labor arrested at 8cm cervical dilation. EM CS done after counselling patient. Baby alive but intractable PPH. EM HYSTERECTOMY done to save life of mother

  • (A) C
  • (B) P
  • (C) T
  • (D) T

Question 134:

A 30-year-old female abuser with suicidal tendency brought to hospital. Mydriasis, tachypnea, tachycardia +. Diagnosis

  • (A) Cocaine
  • (B) Morphine
  • (C) Heroin
  • (D) Chlorpheniramine

Question 135:

MTP in 21-year-old, 10-week pregnancy is to be done by medical methods using

  • (A) Intra uterine hyperosmotics
  • (B) Dinoprostone
  • (C) Oxytocin infusion
  • (D) M +M

Question 136:

A 22 weeks of gestation unmarried 14-year-old girl, who is rape victim comes at your clinic medical termination. What is true for medical abortion?

  • (A) MTP can be done in rape victim till 24 wks.
  • (B) Only one Doctor opinion required
  • (C) Only done if risk of life
  • (D) MTP can be done after permission of medical board

Question 137:

This is seen in postmortem examination of which type of asphyxia:

  • (A) Throttling
  • (B) Smothering
  • (C) Hanging
  • (D) Garrotting

Question 138:

A G5P4 woman comes for routine sonography for the first time, she has early four daughters and wants to have a boy this time and asks for sex determination. To abide by the above depicted guidelines, what will you choose:

  • (A) Will check routine ANC and sex for developmental ABN and do not reveal gender to patient
  • (B) Will check routine ANC and sex for developmental ABN and do reveal gender to patient
  • (C) Do reveal gender if a girl
  • (D) Check only routine ANC, do not check sex

Question 139:

A child was born after the death of his father. Some of them claimed that the child is not from his biological father. DNA fingerprinting was done to identify the father, and the dead father was found to be the biological father. This child is called as:

  • (A) Posthumous child
  • (B) Suppositious child
  • (C) Illegitimate child
  • (D) Posthumous child

Question 140:

A child was a victim of sexual assault, a test was done using a perianal swab. What's the name of this test (yellow needle-shaped crystals are seen)?

  • (A) Barberio test
  • (B) Teichman test
  • (C) Takayama test
  • (D) Florence test

Question 141:

A sexual assault case in court is heard 'in camera'. This trial means:

  • (A) Closed court proceedings
  • (B) Recording of proceedings
  • (C) Open court proceedings
  • (D) Proceeding occurring in different place

Question 142:

Sour taste is mediated by:

  • (A) TRPV3 Channel
  • (B) Metabolic receptors
  • (C) GPCR T1R1
  • (D) GPCR T1Ra

NEET PG 2024 Exam Pattern and Marking Scheme Explained

As per the NBEMS information bulletin on the official website (natboard.edu.in), NEET PG 2024 was a computer-based test of single-best-response MCQs spread across the major clinical and pre-clinical subjects.

  • Total questions: 200 single-best-answer MCQs
  • Duration: 3 hours 30 minutes
  • Total marks: 800
  • Marking scheme: +4 for a correct answer, -1 for a wrong one
  • Mode and slots: computer-based, held in 2 shifts (Shift 1: 9:00 AM to 12:30 PM)
  • Question types: clinical case-based, image-based (x-ray, ECG, histopathology, clinical photos), and direct single-best-answer MCQs

High-Weightage Subjects in NEET PG 2024 to Focus On First

The Shift 1 paper stayed clinical and image-heavy, with the largest share coming from Medicine and the short subjects together carrying real weight.

  • Medicine and allied: the single largest block, with several image- and case-based stems
  • Pharmacology: mechanism, antidote and drug-of-choice questions recurred
  • Pathology: histopathology-photo identification and tumour markers
  • Forensic Medicine: unusually well represented in this shift - asphyxia, firearm injuries, poisoning and medico-legal sections
  • Radiology and Orthopaedics: a heavy run of x-ray/MRI sign-reading questions (fractures, sunburst lesion, chronic SDH)
  • ENT and Ophthalmology: image-based diagnosis (audiograms, otoscopy, fundus, perimetry)

How to Use the NEET PG 2024 Question Paper for Practice

Solve Shift 1 as a timed 3.5-hour mock first, then review every question with the solution PDF above - both the main solution and the alternate explanation.

  • Attempt it in one sitting under the real +4/-1 pressure before you look at any answer
  • Use the image-based questions to drill pattern recognition - this paper was full of them
  • Redo the Forensic, Pharmacology and Radiology sets, where one-line facts decide the mark

NEET PG 2024 Good Attempts and Qualifying Score Benchmark

  • Most students attempted 185 to 195 of the 200 questions in this paper
  • The general-category qualifying line is the 50th percentile (around 291 marks in 2023); for 2024 the qualifying percentile was later reduced to the 5th percentile to fill vacant seats
  • Use roughly 115-125 accurate attempts as a healthy weekly target when you redo the paper

NEET PG 2024 Shift 1 Question Paper FAQs

Ques. Was NEET PG 2024 Shift 1 tougher than Shift 2?

Ans. Shift 1 was rated moderate but lengthy, with a heavy load of image-based clinical questions in Radiology, Orthopaedics and ENT. Most students still managed 185 to 195 attempts, so the length mattered more than raw difficulty.

Ques. How many questions should I attempt in NEET PG 2024 to qualify?

Ans. Aim for 185 or more attempts with high accuracy. The general-category cutoff sits at the 50th percentile (about 291 marks in 2023), so roughly 115-125 correct answers keeps you safely above the qualifying line.

Ques. Which subjects had the highest weightage in NEET PG 2024?

Ans. Medicine carried the largest share, followed by strong showings from Pharmacology, Pathology, Forensic Medicine and image-based Radiology/Orthopaedics. Forensic Medicine was notably well represented in Shift 1.

Ques. Are NEET PG questions repeated from previous years?

Ans. Yes - concepts recur heavily year on year, and several Shift 1 stems mirrored earlier NEET PG and INI-CET themes. Solving previous-year papers like this one is one of the highest-yield ways to prepare.

Ques. What was the NEET PG 2024 qualifying cutoff for the general category?

Ans. The general-category qualifying standard is the 50th percentile. For 2024, the Ministry of Health later reduced the qualifying percentile to the 5th percentile so that vacant counselling seats could be filled.

Ques. Where can I download the NEET PG 2024 Shift 1 question paper with solutions PDF for free?

Ans. Use the download table above on Collegedunia for the Shift 1 paper with full solutions. For the official paper and result, check the NBEMS website at natboard.edu.in.